8

The Appendix Probi reveals errors of both types, i.e. of orthography and pronunciation. The sources for the content of the Appendix are written (as Barnett notes below), but, as such, they must be understood as reflecting habits of pronunciation. In the article “The ‘Appendix Probi’ as a Compendium of Popular Latin: Description and Bibliography”, the ...


6

I think the answer is plain: While consonant i is always a semivowel, non-classical (e.g., ecclesiastical) Latin does not treat consonant u as a semivowel. (See also this discussion.) Consequently it is really annoying to read Latin in many pronunciations, including those in universal use (modern scholars aside) since late antiquity, if v is not ...


5

There's no distinction in Classical times. When the Greek alphabet was standardized by Euclid the Archon (around 400 BCE), the sounds of earlier /ej/ and earlier /eː/ (likewise /ow/, /oː/) had merged completely. Since they were pronounced the same, Eucleides decided to write them the same. From that point onward, there was no distinction in Greek writing of ...


4

The digraph FH was used in early Etruscan inscriptions to represent [f], though it was later replaced by a new sign, looking like the number 𐌚. (Wiki has some more information on this.) As far as I know, FH is not known to have been used in Latin anywhere other than in the Praeneste fibula. Its use for [f] on the fibula (which has sometimes been thought to ...


3

Just to add to Brian's answer:The work in question is the treatise "de facultatibus partium animalium" by the famous medical writer Abū Bakr al-Rāzī (alias Rhazes; 10th century), here appended to the text of his medical encyclopaedia al-Kitāb al-Manṣūrī in the Latin translation by Gerald of Cremona (12th century). This is extant also in the Arabic original. ...


3

No, because in ancient Greek, ὀκτώπους (gen. ὀκτώποδος) does not end in -οῦς, but in -ους. So in Latin it would become octōpūs (gen. octōpodis) with long ū, without circumflex.


3

The book Vox Latina by W. Sidney Allen has a section on semivowels which compares the i and u consonants and vowels. Among the sources of information mentioned about the way these were pronounced are What the Romans wrote about pronunciation The way that Latin words were transcribed in Greek Poetry scansion - Scansion in particular should be helpful for ...


2

There are in fact many scholarly editions of Latin texts that do not use “j” and “v” at all, and there is certainly a logic to this. On the other hand, even experienced Latinists can be forgiven for being taken by surprise by spellings like iuuenis or iuui and preferring the unambiguous juvenis and juvi.


2

Not sure that all those variants "count", but to my understating there are six of them to the word clipeus: clipeus clypeus clipeum clypeum clupeus clupeum Those different variations had raised several speculations in the ancient's minds with respect to the meaning and/or etymology of those different terms - even to extant of self-contraction (...


2

Ī agrēe that learning the language with macrons is important. The mēaning often chānges depending on whether the vowel is short or long. In English wē have short and long vowels as well. It would benefit a foreigner tō knōw where the long vowels are. For instance: bōw vs bow bōw and arrow VS bow down prīmer vs primer ("primmer") prīmer, first cōat ...


1

I think your question has both Latin and typographical elements to it. You are correct in that Greek the letter sigma has two variants: ς, used only at the ends of words, and σ, used elsewhere which was then reflected in Latin cursive. In Old Latin cursive "the letter s was written as a vertical downstroke with a small curve at the end of it, and a ...


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