13 votes

Is this bible in Koine Greek?

Yes, it is Koine instead of modern Greek. You can tell by some of the additional marks around the letters: Koine Greek has breathing marks, while modern does not. Both rough and smooth breathing ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
11 votes

Why no relative pronoun in ἄνθρωπος ἐξηραμμένην ἔχων τὴν χεῖρα?

Whether a relative pronoun is ‘needed’ depends, in part, on how the participles ἔχων and ἐξηραμμένην are functioning. ἐξηραμμένην (withered) is functioning as a verbal adjective, modifying τὴν χεῖρα (...
Penelope's user avatar
  • 8,701
7 votes
Accepted

Why no relative pronoun in ἄνθρωπος ἐξηραμμένην ἔχων τὴν χεῖρα?

Greek loves its participles, and often uses participles where English would use relative clauses. This sometimes leads to multiple participles in a single phrase, as here: καὶ ἦν ἐκεῖ ἄνθρωπος ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66k
4 votes

Is this bible in Koine Greek?

It's Koine Greek. Top right, second line you see the word οὗτος, it's not used in modern Greek. http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=ou(=tos
Matthew Atkinson's user avatar
3 votes

Greek: Function of ὅτι in 2Cor 2:14-15

The ὅτι clause is explaining the participial clause governed by φανεροῦντι. How can it be that it is δι᾽ ἡμῶν that God is manifesting τὴν ὀσμὴν τῆς γνώσεως αὐτοῦ? In the sense that (ὅτι) Χριστοῦ ...
Kingshorsey's user avatar
  • 6,465
2 votes

How would you translate γέγονεν in John 1:15?

I think the meaning of γέγονεν (3rd singular perfect of γίγνομαι) is 'has become' here, as @brianpck says, but to achieve good English usage we can use 'is now' to express the change in state, thus: ...
Graham Asher's user avatar
2 votes

Why the placement of the verse break between John 7:21-22?

The notes in Nestle-Aland’s critical edition Novum Testamentum Graece et Latine make it clear (well, if you know that book’s footnote code...) that it is legitimate to suppose διὰ τοῦτο to be a ...
Dario's user avatar
  • 3,246
2 votes

Translation of the Word Συντέλεια

Good question! Syntéleia is formed from the verb syn-teléō, which originally meant "to complete something". It was the verb for placing the final stone on a building, making the finishing touches on ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66k
2 votes

Why was "Christus" not translated into Latin

Why did St. Jerome use the word Christus in his translation of the New Testament? And why did Roman churches use the word Christus after Constantine converted the Romane empire to Christianity? These ...
ktm5124's user avatar
  • 12k
1 vote

Is this bible in Koine Greek?

There are numerous sites that have the koine text, includi g biblehub, which, when you click on gr for greek, will give several koine texts. There are also youtube channels that use Scrivener's textus ...
Max Goldstein's user avatar
1 vote

Why the placement of the verse break between John 7:21-22?

διὰ τοῦτο in the Greek New Testament always occurs at the beginning of a clause, as can be seen from the results of this search. The τοῦτο can refer either backward, marking the previous clause as the ...
Kingshorsey's user avatar
  • 6,465

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