13
votes
Is this bible in Koine Greek?
Yes, it is Koine instead of modern Greek.
You can tell by some of the additional marks around the letters:
Koine Greek has breathing marks, while modern does not. Both rough and smooth breathing ...
11
votes
Why no relative pronoun in ἄνθρωπος ἐξηραμμένην ἔχων τὴν χεῖρα?
Whether a relative pronoun is ‘needed’ depends, in part, on how the participles ἔχων and ἐξηραμμένην are functioning.
ἐξηραμμένην (withered) is functioning as a verbal adjective, modifying τὴν χεῖρα (...
7
votes
Accepted
Why no relative pronoun in ἄνθρωπος ἐξηραμμένην ἔχων τὴν χεῖρα?
Greek loves its participles, and often uses participles where English would use relative clauses. This sometimes leads to multiple participles in a single phrase, as here:
καὶ ἦν ἐκεῖ ἄνθρωπος ...
4
votes
“Die Daily” or “die every day”
Seneca the Younger has a couple of places in the Epistulae morales ad Lucilium where he expresses the idea of dying every day by using a form of the verb morior plus the adverb cotidie. However, he's ...
3
votes
“Die Daily” or “die every day”
If you're going for a Christian angle, here are two options:
Beatus, qui horam mortis suae semper ante oculos habet et ad moriendum quotidie se disponit. (De Imitatione Christi, I.XXIII)
My ...
3
votes
Greek: Function of ὅτι in 2Cor 2:14-15
The ὅτι clause is explaining the participial clause governed by φανεροῦντι. How can it be that it is δι᾽ ἡμῶν that God is manifesting τὴν ὀσμὴν τῆς γνώσεως αὐτοῦ? In the sense that (ὅτι) Χριστοῦ ...
3
votes
Is this bible in Koine Greek?
It's Koine Greek. Top right, second line you see the word οὗτος, it's not used in modern Greek. http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=ou(=tos
2
votes
How would you translate γέγονεν in John 1:15?
I think the meaning of γέγονεν (3rd singular perfect of γίγνομαι) is 'has become' here, as @brianpck says, but to achieve good English usage we can use 'is now' to express the change in state, thus:
...
2
votes
Why the placement of the verse break between John 7:21-22?
The notes in Nestle-Aland’s critical edition Novum Testamentum Graece et Latine make it clear (well, if you know that book’s footnote code...) that
it is legitimate to suppose διὰ τοῦτο to be a ...
2
votes
Translation of the Word Συντέλεια
Good question!
Syntéleia is formed from the verb syn-teléō, which originally meant "to complete something". It was the verb for placing the final stone on a building, making the finishing touches on ...
2
votes
“Die Daily” or “die every day”
There are many ways to say "every day" in Latin. I am fond of the idiom used in the Psalms, die in diem. So you could translate "die every day" as die in diem moritor.
If the ...
2
votes
Why was "Christus" not translated into Latin
Why did St. Jerome use the word Christus in his translation of the New Testament? And why did Roman churches use the word Christus after Constantine converted the Romane empire to Christianity? These ...
1
vote
Why θεός (in lower case)? (greek)
The excerpt is 2 Corinthians 4:2; the word θεός occurs in the sense that modern practice dictates upper case. Indeed,the 1904 text published by the Ecumenical Patriarchate reads:
ἀλλ’ ἀπειπάμεθα τὰ ...
1
vote
Is this bible in Koine Greek?
There are numerous sites that have the koine text, includi g biblehub, which, when you click on gr for greek, will give several koine texts. There are also youtube channels that use Scrivener's textus ...
1
vote
Why the placement of the verse break between John 7:21-22?
διὰ τοῦτο in the Greek New Testament always occurs at the beginning of a clause, as can be seen from the results of this search. The τοῦτο can refer either backward, marking the previous clause as the ...
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