14

No, there are plenty of ancient Greek words that have μπ and ντ in there somewhere. Two common words off the top of my head are ἀντί and πέμπω, thoroughly attested throughout ancient Greek. If you want to see all the ancient Greek words that merely start with ἀντ-, you can start here and scroll through many scores of entries. What you won't see, though, are ...


13

Good question! In the beginning, way back in the far-flung times of Proto-Indo-European, the word for "it is" was something like *h₁ésti, and it had a fairly regular present participle, *h₁sónts. In Latin, these forms evolved into est and sōns, respectively (vowels get lengthened before -ns). The latter is where we get forms like absēns > "absent" and ...


12

Koiné Greek & earlier lacked initial <μπ>, <ντ>, or <γκ> although these strings are commonplace word-internally. There are however a small number of Modern Greek words beginning <μπ>, <ντ>, or <γκ> that are inherited from Koiné Greek or earlier Originally, the letters <β>, <δ>, & <γ> were used to ...


10

C M Weimer is completely correct, but to add on a bit: The reason ΜΠ and ΝΤ are used for /b/ and /d/ nowadays is because, historically, the voiced stops Β Δ Γ turned into fricatives, and then later the unvoiced stops Π Τ Κ got voiced after nasals. When Greek-speakers heard /b/ in words like Turkish bakkal, the closest equivalent in their language was the ...


8

Two reasons for thinking that Z was pronounced in Latin as a fricative: The spelling SS was once used to represent it, as you mention in your prior question When did the Romans start using Z? The spelling "ZM" existed as a variant for "SM" in words from Greek with ΣΜ. Since Σ is not thought to have been pronounced as an affricate in ...


8

I looked up the Greek word in the etymological dictionaries of Chantraine and Beekes. They both say that your hypothesis #1 (an Oscan loan) was indeed proposed by Cuny in 1908, but that this was rejected by Niedermann in a 1917 Indogermanische Forschungen article, which can be viewed here. Niedermann says, if I understand correctly, that the specific meaning ...


8

There is the word γλῶσσα and a great number of other words derived from it. Here is a list of words containing -ωσσ-, giving more examples.


8

In the oldest stratum of loan words Semitic t and k are generally represented by τ and κ, while the emphatic stops ṭ and q are represented by θ and χ. Witness the names of the letters tau and theta. In later loan words Semitic t and k are generally represented by aspirated θ and χ, while ṭ and q are represented by unaspirated τ and κ. This probably has to do ...


7

There are quite a few, actually. Just to add some more examples: ἥττων "less" πράττω "do" (impv. πρᾶττε shows the length) πλήττω "strike" μᾶλλον "more" ἤλλαγμαι, pf. m./p. of ἀλλάττω "exchange" ἡλλόμην, impf. of ἅλλομαι "jump"


5

A small correction to a near mis-statement in the question. (I'm a native MG speaker.) μπ and ντ are not always pronounced as [b] and [d]! In fact, the "traditional" pronunciation is [mb] and [nd], and is alive and probably well, ... but perhaps on the way out. See cite below. Ακουμπώ [Akoumbo] (touch); Κόμπος [kombos] (knot); γαμπρός [ghambros] (...


5

Note: this answer is pure speculation (or original research, if you're feeling generous), not backed up by any scholarly references. Neither Varro nor I marked vowel length in our Hebrew and Aramaic transcriptions. But what if we go back and add that? מְשִׁיחַ‎ məšīaħ → messias יֵשׁוּעַ jēšūaʕ → iēsūs אַבְשָׁלוֹם 'abəšālōm → abessalōm הוֹשֵׁעַ hōšēaʕ → ...


4

The Greek ἀήρ seems to have entered (post-Biblical) Hebrew via Aramaic ʼwwyr. Syriac Aramaic also has the more Greek-looking form ʼʼr. The replacement of an intervocalic glottal stop by a semi-vowel (here: ʼāʼer > ʼāwer) is typical of Aramaic, and other Semitic languages.


4

The Italian Wikipedia page on Roman onomastics states, without references though, Former auxiliary soldiers and other categories of people that earned the Roman citizenship, could and often would keep at least a part of their original name. A good many names (cognomina when assuming the tria nomina, but old personal slave names) were of Greek origins, ...


4

I think you answered this question yourself with the humble word "also" in the second sentence. "Nomen" has two meanings in Latin, "name" and a particular part of a Roman tripartite name. Even barbarians have names and there is no other word for this than "nomen".


4

In medieval Latin there were neologisms such as ens. The link also says that the original form was sons with the classical meaning "guilty".


3

The vast majority of Semitic words transcribed in Latin come directly from Punic; Krahmalkov provides a summary of the conventions in his Phoenician-Punic Grammar. g, d, l, m, n, r were transcribed as g, d, l, m, n, r 'Aleph and `ayin were completely ignored in transcription, and went silent at some point in Punic history b was transcribed as b; later, as f ...


3

I think that TKR's remark on the occasional spellings with υ may also be relevant to the matter. Note that in Ἰησοῦς with the single σ, the the ש is in the vicinity of a rounded vowel. Also interesting is that while שְלֹמֹה (Shelomo/Solomon) is Σαλωμῶν (or a variant), אַבְשָׁלוֹם (Abshalom/Absalom) is Αβεσσαλωμ, with medial σσ. Also note אֲבִשַׁי (Abishai)...


3

I take it you're not interested in later words like sultanus, algebra, alcohol or nadir. Then I hope that this article from 1892 isn't too outdated: 'On Semitic Words in Greek and Latin' by W. Muss-Arnolt (https://www.jstor.org/stable/2935792?seq=1#metadata_info_tab_contents). If you search for "lat." within the pdf, or look in the index at the end, you'll ...


2

I just recently stumbled across two examples in Lewis and Short of semitic words, for which L&S cites no Greek intermediary. Of course, the lack of citation itself is not exactly proof that Greek intermediaries do not exist. The two words are manzer from the Hebrew, and mapālia from the Punic, conveniently located adjacent to each other on the page.


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