No, the similarity is almost certainly accidental. This kind of coincidental similarity is pretty common, especially in short words like ad.
Latin ad "to, near, at" has cognates in several other branches of Indo-European, including Celtic (Old Irish ad-), Phrygian (αδ-), and Germanic -- English at is among the latter. It appears to go back to a Proto-Indo-...
I have two thoughts about this.
First, the thing to keep in mind here is that different languages use different tenses differently.
In English, for example, I'd use the present tense followed by the future tense followed by the present tense to say
If you arrive tomorrow, I'll see you.
In French, however, such a thing would make no sense. How can you ...
The Wikipedia article on Tetragrammaton gives a long list of examples from Greek and Latin in early manuscripts and patristic writing. The overwhelming majority use "Lord", but a few use proper transliterations, such as Ἰαῶ in Greek and "Jaho" in Latin.
In the oldest stratum of loan words Semitic t and k are generally represented by τ and κ, while the emphatic stops ṭ and q are represented by θ and χ. Witness the names of the letters tau and theta. In later loan words Semitic t and k are generally represented by aspirated θ and χ, while ṭ and q are represented by unaspirated τ and κ. This probably has to do ...
There are quite a few, actually. Just to add some more examples:
πράττω "do" (impv. πρᾶττε shows the length)
ἤλλαγμαι, pf. m./p. of ἀλλάττω "exchange"
ἡλλόμην, impf. of ἅλλομαι "jump"
Note: this answer is pure speculation (or original research, if you're feeling generous), not backed up by any scholarly references.
Neither Varro nor I marked vowel length in our Hebrew and Aramaic transcriptions. But what if we go back and add that?
מְשִׁיחַ məšīaħ → messias
יֵשׁוּעַ jēšūaʕ → iēsūs
אַבְשָׁלוֹם 'abəšālōm → abessalōm
הוֹשֵׁעַ hōšēaʕ → ...
The Greek ἀήρ seems to have entered (post-Biblical) Hebrew via Aramaic ʼwwyr. Syriac Aramaic also has the more Greek-looking form ʼʼr. The replacement of an intervocalic glottal stop by a semi-vowel (here: ʼāʼer > ʼāwer) is typical of Aramaic, and other Semitic languages.
I think that TKR's remark on the occasional spellings with υ may also be relevant to the matter. Note that in Ἰησοῦς with the single σ, the the ש is in the vicinity of a rounded vowel.
Also interesting is that while שְלֹמֹה (Shelomo/Solomon) is Σαλωμῶν (or a variant), אַבְשָׁלוֹם (Abshalom/Absalom) is Αβεσσαλωμ, with medial σσ. Also note אֲבִשַׁי (Abishai)...
-ico- is a regular suffix forming an adjective from a noun.
mĕlicus melodious. mĕlicae sonores, tuneful sounds (Lucretius)
More promising is
mēles, also mēlis, -is f. also mælis, a badger or pine marten.
Source: Lewis&Short: Perseus Tufts
The adjective melicus could mean
.1. An actual badger kept for hunting wild bees.
.2. Any grizzled animal; e....
The oldest Greek transcription I've found is from Diodorus of Sicily (The Library of History I.94.2):
παρὰ δὲ τοῖς Ἰουδαίοις Μωυσῆν τὸν Ἰαὼ ἐπικαλούμενον θεόν
Among the Jews, Moses [attributed his laws to] the god called "Iaō".
The oldest Latin one I've found is Pseudo-Jerome (Breviary on the Psalms 8: in this manuscript, it's on 12v-13r):
If you wanted to pronounce it like:
English scientific or legal Latin, it would be pronounced "jah-HOE-vee"
If you wanted to give it an Ecclesiastical or modern-Roman
pronunciation, it would be pronounced "yay-Oh-vay", with a silent H.
If you wanted to pronounce it according to the Vox Latina textbook,
which is popular these days in academic and educational ...
This is really an issue with Hebrew. The Hebrew "tenses" do not map into Greek/Latin/English tenses in a straight-forward manner, and their uses even seem to vary depending on whether they're being used in prose or poetry. So Jerome gives a sort of litteralist translation, but the English translations probably reflect the sense of the Hebrew better. (I'm ...