Indeed, you can leave out the verb "to be" in both Latin and Greek. But I have one issue with your translation.
φίλος is not a noun meaning "love". It is either an adjective meaning "dear" (or "beloved") or a substantive meaning "friend". The noun meaning "love" would be φιλία. (Keep in mind there are many words for love, each having its own nuance.)
"Living" is an undertranslation of "ἀθάνατος."
"Living" has a straightforward translation from "ζῆν" (to live): the participle "ζῶν"; "ἀθάνατος," however, means "not mortal," as opposed to "not dead." If it simply meant "not dead," then your appeal to the law of excluded middle would be justified.
God is living (ζῶν) and immortal (ἀθάνατος).
A dog is ...
This appears to be a fragment, or rather part of a fragment, from a lost play of Sophocles, the Phthiotides or Women of Phthia. Here is a source that gives the full three-line fragment, which runs:
Νέος πέφυκας· πολλὰ καὶ μαθεῖν σε δεῖ
καὶ πόλλ' ἀκοῦσαι καὶ διδάσκεσθαι μακρά.
ἀεί τι βούλου χρήσιμον προσμανθάνειν.
A very literal translation: "You are ...
Your translation is close!
Here is a letter for letter transcription of the image, except there is a line over "ΘΣ" in the second line:
Κύριε ὁ θ(εὸ)ς τοῦ ἁγίου Κοσμᾶ κ(αὶ) Δαμιανοῦ, ἐλέησον τὸν τριβοῦνον Δαγίσθεον καὶ ...
Short answer: no, athanatos means "immortal", not just "living".
Longer answer: compare the English word "immortal". It comes from the Latin in- ("not") + mort- ("death"). So you could argue etymologically that "immortal" should mean "alive" ("not dead").
However, that's not what it means; "immortal" means not just "not dead", but "unable to die". The same ...
You're close on the Latin, but your endings are wrong:
Iesus Christus Filius Dei Salvator
If you wanted to, you could even switch the F and the D:
Iesus Christus Dei Filius Salvator
I don't really like the acronym either gives, though.
Depending on when in the Middle Ages you're talking about, you still would see an initial I. J was used to ...
The symbol at the end of line two is a (genitive) OY digraph. The 'K' as you show is KAI. TPIBOYNON is probably the loan word Tribunus from Latin; the long 'u' has been transliterated as 'ou'.
┼ KYPIE O ΘEOΣ TOY AΓΙΟΥ ΚΟCΜΑ·ΚAI·ΔΑΜΙΑΝΟΥ ...
ἑαυτοῦ: this is reflexive because it's referring all the way back to the subject of the verb of speech that introduced this whole passage of indirect discourse. It's an "indirect reflexive": see the discussion in Smyth 1225ff.
οἱ: this is not the nom. pl. of the definite article, but the enclitic dat. sg. of the third-person pronoun, "(to) him". The way to ...
I would say "hands" without a doubt.
The "standard" rendition of the first half is, very literally:
καὶ δοθήσεται τὸ βιβλίον τοῦτο
And this book will be given
εἰς χεῖρας ἀνθρώπου
into [the] hands of a person
μὴ ἐπισταμένου γράμματα…
[who is] not knowing letters…
Or, using more idiomatic English, "and this book will be placed in the ...
Stobaeus 2,31,16a quotes the trimeter as part of the same sequence of the first two trimeters, which come from Sophocles' Phthiotides (fr. *694 Radt), but it was secluded from Nauck, who assigned it to the fragmenta adespota (fr. 516a, see also B. Snell – R. Kannicht, Tragicorum Graecorum fragmenta II, 1981, p. 147).
Your translation with imperative form is ...
This sounds very similar to Crito 49e2-3:
εἰ δ’ ἐμμένεις τοῖς πρόσθε, τὸ μετὰ τοῦτο ἄκουε.
Which translates to:
If you abide by [what we agreed] beforehand, listen to what follows.
Literally, "τὸ μετὰ τοῦτο" means "the after that."
Although the article τό makes the Crito passage more obvious, it seems pretty clear that this is what is going on in ...
Plautus, Bacchides, lines 816-7:
quem di diligunt / adulescens moritur
He whom the gods love / dies young
Menander, Dis Exapatōn (fourth century BCE), fragment quoted in Stobaeus (KT 111):
ὃν οἱ θεοὶ φιλοῦσιν, ἀποθνῄσκει νέος.
He whom the gods love, dies young.
Neither Dis Exapatōn nor Bacchides survives completely, but the fragments we have ...
Rackham translates it as follows:
Also the activity of contemplation may be held to be the only activity that is loved for its own sake:
The Greek text again:
δόξαι τ᾽ ἂν αὐτὴ μόνη δι᾽ αὑτὴν ἀγαπᾶσθαι·
According to William Watson Goodwin,1
Δοκέω in the meaning I seem (videor) usually has the personal construction, as in English; as οὗτος δοκεῖ εἶναι, he ...
Your main question has been well answered by Penelope and in the article linked by brianpck: when there is a coordination of more than one subject, the verb can agree with the entire coordination or just with the nearest member. So I'll address your other questions, about particles.
First, a general point about translating Greek particles: don't get too ...
It makes sense to construe as one unit the following phrase:
τοῦ γυναικείου πέρι νόμου λέγοντες
[We who are] speaking about the law concerning women
This is the subject of the sentence: I construe φῶμεν as a hortatory subjunctive and ὥσπερ as a way to "apologize" for the image of a wave. We thus get:
τοῦτο μὲν τοίνυν ἓν ὥσπερ κῦμα ...
This is an adverbial use of the relative and has its own entry in LSJ. It's used in comparative clauses, for example.
ᾗ, dat. sg. fem. of relat. Pron. ὅς, ἥ, ὅ, in adverb. sense ... II. of Manner, how, as.
Comparative clauses of quality or manner are introduced by ὡς as, ὥσπερ, καθάπερ just as, ὅπως, ᾗ, ὅπῃ, ᾗπερ as
Apparently, two or more subjects can occur with a singular verb, with the verb understood to be agreeing with the nearest or most important subject (Smyth 963 & 966 (c)).
Perhaps this is what is happening here? Perhaps Socrates is wishing to draw attention to the athletic training in particular. He certainly does proceed to play on the apparent ...
As you say, one can explicate an implied agent from passive verbs based on context. The most literal (but probably unusable) translation would be "there is to be assigned". Usually the impersonal pronoun one can be used to make it somewhat more palpable. Whenever context supplies enough information that we know who or what is supposed to do the assigning, we ...
I think the Greek for Apollo's golden chariot would be ἅρμα χρύσεον Ἀπόλλωνος. I don't think Apollo's chariot would be τέθριππον, which means "four-horse," since it's actually pulled by swans.
I get the impression from WP that Helios was not really a big deal in classical Greek culture until the Romans exerted an influence back on the Greeks. But if you ...
To give a partial answer:
In researching the Trisagion, I came across 14th century commentary by Nicolas Cabasilas, 'A Commentary on the Divine Liturgy'.
In this book, he goes as far as to state, "[...] the words 'Strong and immortal God' are those of blessed David, who exclaims 'My soul thirsts for the strong and living God' [...]" (pg. 59, St. Vladimir'...
That's right, but you do not have to translate the acronym, it does not make sense.
"Ἰησοῦς Χριστός, Θεοῦ Υἱός, Σωτήρ" is use by the primitiv church.
the first letter of each word ἸΧΘYΣ', form another word. Ichthus is the Greek name of fish. The fish is a symbol of Christ. It doesn't make sense if you use the first letter of the sentence in another ...
The ὅτι clause is explaining the participial clause governed by φανεροῦντι. How can it be that it is δι᾽ ἡμῶν that God is manifesting τὴν ὀσμὴν τῆς γνώσεως αὐτοῦ? In the sense that (ὅτι) Χριστοῦ εὐωδία ἐσμὲν...
As fdb says, the middle and passive voice aren't completely identical: in two specific tenses (the future and aorist), they're distinct. For example, "I will be released" is λυθήσομαι, while "I will release myself" is λύσομαι; "I was released" is ἐλύθην, while "I released myself" is ἐλυσάμην. In these specific instances, a theta before the ending tells you ...
I would never trust Google Translate for quotes, especially ancient ones; even if it's totally accurate, it's giving you Modern Greek, and isn't smart enough to look up the original source of quotes.
"DK 22A1" means it's listed in Diels and Kranz's Fragments of the Presocratic Philosophers, chapter 22, secondary sources, source number 1. Checking ...
The words are Greek:
My guess is that it was meant to be Orpheus Bacchicos, either misspelled or written in a different dialect. In this case, it would mean "Bacchic Orpheus" (where "Bacchic" refers to the worship of Bacchus, and "Orpheus" is the singer who went down to the Underworld and returned).
Both Bacchus and ...
The notes in Nestle-Aland’s critical edition Novum Testamentum Graece et Latine make it clear (well, if you know that book’s footnote code...) that
it is legitimate to suppose διὰ τοῦτο to be a later insertion, even if they don’t think so, and
some old Greek texts did consider it part of the previous sentence.
The text you are working with was edited by ...
(This answer may not be satisfying, and I'm happy to have it supplanted in the future! But for now…)
I've never heard of a "γε causal", nor have any of the classicists I've talked to. A Google search brings up physics papers talking about "gamma-epsilon geodesics", which seem to be something in relativity, but no relevant results about Ancient Greek.