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Yes, the verb is omitted. You can imagine the sentence going idque fit (or fiet) eodem die quo ... (and this happens/will happen on the same day as ...). The same omission is often seen in English too: "and this on the day when ..."


The relevant quote is: Sic igitur dicet ille quem expetimus […] ut quod dixit iteret… Therefore the one that we're trying to discover speaks in such a way […] that he will repeat the thing that he's [already] said… In other words, this is a purpose clause (sic…ut + subj). And the object of the subjunctive verb iteret isn't an indirect question: it's a ...


This isn't actually an indirect question, but a relative clause: quod dixit "(that) which he said". The two constructions are easy to confuse, especially since English can translate both with what. In this case, though, quod can only be a relative pronoun; the neuter interrogative pronoun is quid, so an indirect question like e.g. "I know what ...


Joonas provided an excellent grammatical reference: A&G have worked out a very good classification of classical Latin idiom. I want to elaborate on the semantics of the possessive construction, possibly help you develop an intuition behind it, and make the answer to the second part of your question intuitive. We're lucky that a parallel construction with ...


See Allen and Greenough, §343.c: c. An infinitive or a clause, when used as a noun, is often limited by a genitive in the predicate. Neque suī iūdicī [erat] discernere. (B. C. 1.35) Nor was it for his judgment to decide. (Nor was it his judgment's to decide) Cûiusvīs hominis est errāre. (Phil. 12.5) It is any man's [liability] to err. Negāvit mōris esse ...


You're basically there. Potius does mean "rather", so the whole sentence means: He made sure that we should be saved from the storm and not drown -- or rather we ourselves (made sure of it), who threw the goods away (=overboard).

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