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8 votes

Were initial voiced stops voiceless in early Latin?

To elaborate on jknappen's excellent answer: The Etruscan language, originally spoken across Tuscany, had no voicing distinctions. They had an aspiration distinction, with /tÊ°/ and /t/ contrasting, ...
Draconis's user avatar
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7 votes

Were initial voiced stops voiceless in early Latin?

Some of the phenomena are in fact an interference of Etruscan: As far as we know, the Etruscan language made no phonemic distinction between voiced and voiceless stops. Because the Romans adapted the ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
4 votes

aret = aridus est?

The expressions may sometimes be equivalent, but there are two features particular to areo. First,the verb can communicate a durative or even progressive aspect, "continues without water" or "is ...
Kingshorsey's user avatar
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2 votes

Are there unprefixed location verbs in Latin?

Possible examples: carcero, carcerare. Lewis and Short has an entry defining it as follows: to imprison, incarcerate (post-class.), Salv. Prov. 2, p. 53; Auct. Prog. Aug. 29. Pretty clearly based ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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1 vote

edere panem vs. comedere panem

I am not sure you can draw this conclusion. There do seem to be cases where comedo is used indefinitely. For example, in Juvenal's second satire, he write comedunt colyphia paucae (few women consume ...
Tyler Durden's user avatar
  • 7,357

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