It is, believe it or not, a form of ἔχω. Specifically, it's a feminine nominative singular of the aorist active participle of the compound περι-έχω "have beyond, have in a greater measure than others". The Attic form would be περισχοῦσα.
ἔχω has a rare alternative aorist ἔσχεθον, attested for example in Iliad 14.427-8:
ἀλλὰ πάροιθεν ἀσπίδας εὐκύκλους ...
While Freeth's 2006 paper (with the good transcriptions) isn't freely available, his 2012 paper (analyzing the text in more detail) is!
The inscriptions are engraved in skilfully executed serifed capital letters very similar to the lettering of inscriptions on stone from the last three centuries BC. The letter forms are most characteristic of ...
The nice thing about Greek dialect inscriptions is that there was little in the way of standardized orthography: spellings seem to closely track the local pronunciation (or sometimes apparently the pronunciation of the scribe, who wasn't always necessarily a local). So the answer is yes, we know quite a bit; this is the main reason we know anything about ...
A fragment quoted by Athenaeus preserves an elided form of φίλημι:
ἔγω δὲ φίλημ᾽ ἀβροσύναν, καὶ μοι τὸ λάμπρον
ἔρος ἀελίω καὶ τὸ κάλον λέλογχεν.
These lines also appear, in a slightly different version, in P.Oxy. 1787 fr. 1, a papyrus that contained, among other things, line endings from the "Tithonus poem". This is fragment 58 in the Loeb ...
W. Sidney Allen's famous Vox Graeca, which is well worth the time of anyone with a more-than-casual interest in Greek pronunciation, has three-and-a-half pages' worth of things to say about the subject, which I will attempt to summarise.
It's uncontroversial that from quite early in the Archaic period through the late 4th century BCE, ζ represented [zd] in ...
This is an interesting question, and one I was surprised hadn't been answered here before!
First and foremost, Ψαπφω is wrong, insofar as ψ indicates the sound /ps/ in Attic Greek. Hephaestion's Handbook on Meters 14.4 has the following example of the twelve-syllable Alcaic line (taken from Loeb 142 p404):
ἰόπλοκ᾿ ἄγνα μελλιχόμειδε Σάπφοι
ióplok' ágna ...
I'm not absolutely sure about this, but this looks a dialectal form corresponding to Attic περιέχουσα from περιέχειν, meaning "encompassing" or similar. (The σκε in the Aeolic from would correspond to the by-stem σχε of ἔχειν [‹ *σεχ] with loss of aspiration in Aeolic.)
Sure. Some examples:
ὄψ 'voice', cf. Skt. vacati 'say'
ὤψ 'eye', cf. Lat. oculus
χέρνιψ 'basin for washing hands', from root of νίζω 'wash', cf. Skt. nenekti 'id.'
λείπω 'leave', cf. Lat. linquō
ἀμείβω 'exchange', cf. Lat. migrō
σέβομαι 'revere', cf. Skt. tyajati 'abandon'
νείφει 'snow', cf. Lat nix, nivis
(I'm listing thematic verbs here even though one ...
Considering the number of times that Roman senators made fun of people with provincial accents (Hadrian is a good example), you could probably argue that whatever was spoken in Rome was what was closest to being considered the "standard" or "correct" way to pronounce Latin. On the topic of pronunciation, you might find this post on how it is that we know how ...
Both articles are correct: Homeric Greek had injunctive forms that looked different from the "normal" past tenses, but they didn't mean anything different.
In late Proto-Indo-European, or at least some branches of it, the pure aspect system had started to turn into the mixed tense-aspect system we see in Greek and Latin. In what would become Greek (and also ...
(answer in progress - notes so far)
“Die Verteilung von -ιν und -ιδα scheint der üblichen zu entsprechen, d.h. sie richtet sich nach dem im Lesb. nicht wirksamen Akzentunterschied” (Hamm 1957, Grammatik zu Sappho und Alkaios, §239c)
πάις (cf. παῖς), Hamm 1957 says “Akk. immer παῖδα* (§111c).
“Der Akk. πάϊν = παῖδα begegnet erst in römischer Zeit ...