The Catholic Church seems to use (say, Archiepiscopus) Neo-Eboracensis very
consistently. See, for example: here for 'FRANCISCUS titulo Ss. Ioannis et Pauli Presbyter Cardinalis SPELLMAN, Archiepiscopus Neo-Eboracensis.'
As they use Latin as an official language, that's probably the most official you ever get!
There are indeed a few examples of such words from ancient texts, but they are very rare. They are still formed from the supine stem, meaning that the original dental consonant (d or t) is replaced with s, to which -trix or -trum is then appended.
The Perseus Project provides a search tool for its dictionaries (in particular, Lewis & Short) which allows ...
I have another entry for this exhibit that answers your question with a resounding yes.
Enter Plautus, in the Menaechmi, with three verbs derived from proper names in his prologue:
Atque hoc poetae faciunt in comoediis:
omnis res gestas esse Athenis autumant,
quo illud vobis graecum videatur magis;
ego nusquam dicam nisi ubi factum dicitur.
Just a few days ago I was looking up the scientific name of the Northern Waterthrush: the Parkesia noveboracensis.
The name occurs in several other names. However, I haven't found an example of it being used in actual Latin text, so an attested form (like the above Neo-eboracensis) is probably preferable.
In a recent paper (included in The Latin of the Grammarians), I have made the point that Latin grammarians, unlike their Greek predecessors, did not expressly stress the uninflectional nature of adverbs, and this may be due to the fact that they observed some sort of declension in some types of adverbs (not only those derived of adjectives -doctus > docte-, ...
διδαχή is indeed built on διδάσκω, though without the inchoative infix -σκ-: the root is διδαχ-, as can be seen in the aorist ἐδίδαξα, and -σκ- is one of those infixes that only show up in the present. The reduplication, in this case, indicates a causative (the original verb is the unattested-in-the-present *δάω 'to learn', though it does show up in the ...
Unfortunately, it seems that people have tried for centuries to answer this question, with limited success or at least limited consistency. For example:
In his 1841 Dictionary of Latin Synonymes, Lewis Ramshorn indicates that fourth-declension words derived from the supine "designate permanent conditions," while third-declention words in -tio and -sio ...
According to Miller (2006: 76, 78), the endings -men and -mentum form a deverbal (with one exception) noun with the semantics of means, instrument or result of action of the verb. Relevant quotations are
§3.4 -men [...] ‘means, instrument, result’
While -men is formally and functionally related to -mentum (LG i.§326), the
latter will be treated ...
Yes, double diminutives are possible in Latin. I found a few other examples from a search on Perseus of Lewis and Short (I looked for words ending in "llula", "llulus" and "llulum"):
arcellula < arcella < arca
a very little box, Diom. p. 313 P.
lamellula < lamella < lamina
a small plate of metal: “glebulas emi, lamellulas paravi,” Petr. ...
There are at least some cases in which this can be done, with different shades of meaning.
graecisso (-izo), āre, v. n., = Γραικίζω, to imitate the Greeks, to adopt a Grecian manner or tone: atque adeo hoc argumentum graecissat; tamen Non atticissat; verum sicelissat, Plaut. Men. prol. 7; v. Ritschl ad h. l.: graecizat, Consent. 1063 P.
atticisso, āre, v. n....
A word search confirms that -olus is used instead of -ulus after a vowel.
A Perseus search for words ending in -olus reveals (among a few false positives, like malevolus) that every diminutive form follows a vowel. A similar search for -[vowel]ulus, such as -iulus, only returns false positives.
This is confirmed in Allen and Greenough's Latin Grammar:
In general, the -osus ending indicates plenty. Lacrimosa isn't just "teary-eyed," but weepy. Same with nivosa. Niveus is often used with mountains to describe the snow-topped peaks, and from the quality of snow (i.e. whiteness), it is used to describe things in English we'd describe as "snow-white" - teeth, milk, togas, fleece (as in the old nursery rhyme). ...
Remember than infinitives are “typically frozen case-forms” of verbal nouns (Fortson 2010: 107; see also Weiss 2009: 445). So, in several IE branches (Balto-Slavic, Indo-Iranian and Italic), there is a “specific infinitive formation often called the supine that is solely used with verbs of motion to indicate purpose” (Fortson 2010: 108).
In Latin, it’s also ...
I think abdomunculum would be the most regular diminutive of abdomen. But it seems a bit difficult to me to give a clear answer because the rules about "proper" diminutive suffixes are often based on the form and gender of the original noun, and I know of no existing diminutives formed on nouns with precisely the same morphological form and gender as abdomen,...
There are agent nouns for all genders.
For example, saltare gives rise to saltator, saltatrix, and saltatrum.
For more details, see this question.
The stem is revealed by the genitive form.
For my three examples they are saltator- (third conjugation), saltatric- (third), and saltatr- (second).
(The stem of rex is reg-, so it has a g instead of a c.)
If you ...
The stem of sāl is săl-.
This is documented in many dictionaries, including Lewis and Short.
Most derivatives are taken from the stem of the noun, not the nominative.
The only outlier with respect to vowel quantity is the singular nominative of the noun.
The question should rather be: Why is it long?
If we accept the noun (sāl, sălis) as a starting point,...
As has been pointed out, it's the long vowel in the nom. and voc. sg. of sāl that requires explanation, not the short vowel everywhere else, and it doesn't look like we have a good consensus.
Sihler, in his New Comparative Grammar of Greek and Latin, calls it "an enigma". He holds that sāl continues earlier *sall and ultimately Proto-Indo-European *...
As far as I can see, the Roman grammarians did not consider the adverbial -e to be a case ending. On the other hand, from the standpoint of historical linguistics most Latin adverbs are indeed fossilised case forms of adjectives. The “adverbial -e” is in fact of two-fold origin. i-stem adjectives like facilis use the accusative singular neuter as an adverb (...
According to Mensa's About Us page, the name is taken from Latin mensa, which means "table":
What does "Mensa" mean?
The word "Mensa" means "table" in Latin. Mensa is a round-table society, where race, color, creed, national origin, age, politics, educational or social background are irrelevant.
This is further ...
According to De Vaan's Etymological Dictionary, these two words are not related. Here are his notes on mēns:
PIE *mn-ti- [f.] 'thought, mind'. IE cognates: Skt. mati- [f.] 'thought, mind', Av. *maiti-, Lith. mintis 'thought, idea'
So Proto-Italic and Proto-Indo-European take this mnti form, which has a number of Indo-European ...
Assuming we're in a codified state (from the tags), there are two primary ways. The first is use the present participle as a substantive. E.g. Cic. Div. 68.141 (from G-L § 437):
Nihil est magnum somnianti
Nothing is great to a dreamer (= to one dreaming)
Be careful, though, because in the ablative singular the ending is an e instead of an i when it's used ...
The supine is, in fact, the remnant of a fourth-declension nominal form, a verbal noun which stood for the action itself. The Plautine comedies still record an intermediate stage of this syntactical use.
For example, we have accusative with ire, as in ire obsonatum "to go shopping" or ire venatum "to go hunting". On the other hand, redire takes the ablative,...
Latin doesn't need any changes at all. Since there are no definite articles, there's no need for anything but using the adjective substantively. The only requirement is following normal grammar rules on case endings.
So, you could easily say both vir bonus and just bonus for "the good man." Same with participles, one of the most memorably lines from Livy is ...
I can think of many ways of going about this, but for such an unapologetically modern idea I think the best approach may be to observe how other related modern languages have solved this problem and extrapolate how a similar transformation might work.
French, though, seems to be a hold-out: I have ...
Weiss cites, besides alumnus, femina (from a root meaning 'give suck'), calumnia (derived from *kalwo-mno-, from the root of calvor 'deceive'), and possibly also columna and the divine name Vortumnus (if related to verto 'turn', though it may rather be Etruscan). These are not Greek loans but native formations; I don't know when precisely they were formed, ...
I don't have anything to say about this particular case, but the phenomenon itself is common.
Any adjective can be substantivized.
For example rubrum (from ruber, "red") can mean "the color red" or "a red thing".
Translating such nouns depends heavily on context.
As with any word, a substantivized adjective can acquire a meaning different from the original ...