11 votes

What do "hic" and "ille" refer to in this passage from Ovid's Tristia?

When hic and ille are used like this, they refer to the distance of words: hic refers to the closest noun, ille the one that came first. In your example, you have first pontus and then aer. Hic ...
cmw's user avatar
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9 votes

What do "hic" and "ille" refer to in this passage from Ovid's Tristia?

I'd like to offer an addition, which was originally posted as a comment but requested to be turned into an answer by OP. As explained in the other two answers, iste, ille and hic are used to refer ...
CompuChip's user avatar
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9 votes
Accepted

What do "hic" and "ille" refer to in this passage from Ovid's Tristia?

Of course, as with so much in Latin, there's more than one answer, none of them incorrect. The first answer is yes, using hic and ille like this to mean "the latter" and "the former&...
Joel Derfner's user avatar
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8 votes
Accepted

Reference with hic, is and ille

You may be able to find nouna...nounb, isb...sed illea, but that's an unusual pairing, and you'd probably want to read it more literally, i.e. "he did X, but the former/latter did Y." The most common ...
cmw's user avatar
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8 votes
Accepted

How is the demonstrative pronoun "is" weaker than the others?

I don't have a source for this answer, as it's based on my intuition from reading Latin texts, but here's my sense of the difference between is and hic/iste/ille. Hic/iste/ille are strongly deictic: ...
TKR's user avatar
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7 votes
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Can the use of articles be traced back to Late/Vulgar Latin?

Isolated usages of unus as an indefinite article have been identified in Old and Classical Latin, but generally speaking unus and ille did not establish themselves as articles until Late and early ...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

Why "ipse hic" is used here and not "ipse tu"?

The pronoun ipse refers to the implicit pronoun tu. While ipse can be used with personal or other pronouns like you list, it is also often used on its own even when referring to actors that are ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

How essential are the demonstrative pronoun declensions?

You can't read Latin proficiently without knowing these pronouns: they're all very common, and the meaning of a sentence often hinges on their precise form. That said, their declensions are ...
TKR's user avatar
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6 votes
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What do I do when a pronoun refers to both a male and a female?

In Latin (and most if not all other Indo-European languages that maintain noun genders), the masculine is used for groups of mixed gender. This comes from how the genders formed in Proto-Indo-European....
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes

If a demonstrative is not modifying a noun, is it called a demonstrative pronoun?

A pronoun is called a pronoun because it stands in place of a noun. The preposition pro in Latin means “in place of, on behalf of” (well, it is a bit more versatile, but it fits here). So a proconsul ...
Sebastian Koppehel's user avatar
4 votes

Gender of antecedent of "hoc" in phrase "hoc quod"?

Grammatically, there is no antecedent, hence no agreement is necessary (or possible) The demonstrative hoc doesn't always have an antecedent. There is none here, any more than there is an antecedent ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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4 votes
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LLPSI: Cap. XIII, '...quibus haec sunt nōmina...'

It's nominative and for a less complicated reason than the one you posited. For one, it can't be accusative, because haec and nomina are all that exists in the relative clause, for which the relative ...
cmw's user avatar
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4 votes

Is EUM the only possible translation for HIM as direct object?

Him (meaning 'this man,' 'that man.') hunc, illum, istum, (also (derogatory) ollum Cicero, but this usage decried by Quintilian) also ollus, a, um, old form for ille, q. v. Lewis and Short perseus ...
Hugh's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is EUM the only possible translation for HIM as direct object?

Your suggestion eum would indeed be the standard one. There are options, based on the fact that the English "he" does not correspond to a single Latin pronoun. Instead of is you could use ille and ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
4 votes

How to find the object of reference of a latin relative pronoun?

Two ways: By agreement in gender and number—but not case, since the pronoun's case in the subordinate clause may differ from that of its antecedent in the parent clause. By sense—that is, by what ...
Ben Kovitz's user avatar
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3 votes
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How to find the object of reference of a latin relative pronoun?

Descriptively speaking, relative clauses can be classified into two types depending on having an external antecedent or not (e.g., please see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relative_clause ): cf. so-...
Mitomino's user avatar
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3 votes

Why add "ei" to a sentence with "imperare" and "parere"?

The relative pronoun qui is masculine plural, and you translate it as "those who". As you can see, in English, we have a demonstrative/personal pronoun "those" and a relative pronoun "who". In Latin (...
Cerberus's user avatar
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2 votes

Gender of antecedent of "hoc" in phrase "hoc quod"?

No, it does not agree with any noun because there is no noun, and none is implied either. It must be neutral, because if it was masculine or feminine, the meaning would be rather different. Quod X, ...
Sebastian Koppehel's user avatar
2 votes

What is the difference between is, ille, and hic when they mean "he"?

Pronoun differences. In my beginner-Latin courses, my instructors were fairly explicit with the differences; In classical Latin, hic was a pronoun that indicated closeness to a person either in ...
Nickimite's user avatar
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2 votes
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Ambiguity in "Illīus hominis fīlium laudābant omnēs"?

Yes, the boundary between adjective and substantive nouns is often unclear in Latin and Greek. So adjectives can generally be used like substantive nouns, and demonstrative pronouns like ille are ...
Cerberus's user avatar
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