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16 votes

What declension is the name, Aeneas?

It is of the first declension, but not of the most typical kind. I would divide the first declension into four classes: Case (Feminine) A-type Masculine A-type Feminine E-type Masculine E-type ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
12 votes
Accepted

What is the origin of the -a in words like "collega, advena"?

It is generally believed is that "The Italic "1st declension" continues PIE feminine formations ("ā-stems") built with an invariable suffix *-eh2(-)" (Vine 2017: 755) cf. Beekes 2011 proposal of ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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12 votes
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Æ ligature – the definitive answer

When it comes to Latin, 'æ' is the same as 'ae', at least when in the diphthong. When the vowels are in different syllables, as in aer, then 'æ' is not used. You could see this so that 'ae' is such a ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
11 votes

In contemporary spoken Latin, do people mark the 1st-declension ablative case?

tl;dr: as the risk of mistake is higher than for other suffixes, in contexts where analyzing the cases is difficult (like chanting psalms in a fast pace) people often distinguish the length less for -...
Pavel V.'s user avatar
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10 votes
Accepted

Was "Pascha" ever used as a neuter first-declension noun?

Actually Du Cange (Glossarium mediae et infimae latinitatis) records a lot of examples of the neuter form Pascha, -ae, which he seems to prefer. "Orat. et prec. de Pascha annotino" "...
Rolling Sea's user avatar
9 votes

How common is the genitive plural ending -um in the first declension?

Leumann (p. 421) mentions two cases: spoken gen.pl. drachmum and amphorum; in dactylic poetry, four-syllable masculine nouns, besides the regular forms, could also have gen.pl. in -um, mostly ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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8 votes

In contemporary spoken Latin, do people mark the 1st-declension ablative case?

In contemporary spoken Latin in Finnish all vowel quantities are carefully articulated. There is nothing special about the first declension ablative. I have therefore learned to expect it, and it will ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
8 votes

In contemporary spoken Latin, do people mark the 1st-declension ablative case?

I don't know about the Vatican. But I've met very few people at conventicula, living-Latin events, etc., who make any distinction whatsoever. I don't generally have a problem, I think in part because ...
Joel Derfner's user avatar
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7 votes

Was "Pascha" ever used as a neuter first-declension noun?

Never realized that, but you have an example (nominative-only, though) in ecclesiastical Latin in the hymn Lauda Sion: In hac mensa novi Regis Novum Pascha novae legis Phase vetus terminat ...
Rafael's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

Was -i used as genitive ending for first declension masculines?

I don't see any reference to such an ending in either Allen and Greenough or Gildersleeve and Lodge, so I strongly suspect the answer is no. That said, in another, historical sense the -ī ending was ...
TKR's user avatar
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6 votes
Accepted

The length of the final vowel in first declension nouns (Greek)

There doesn't seem to be any single rule that can be used to determine without fail if a first-declension feminine noun ends in ᾰ or ᾱ just from the unaccented spelling of the nominative singular. (I ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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6 votes

Is the unmarked 1st-declension ablative in writing ever jarring or confusing?

I'll give you a partial answer, but I'm not a fluent reader yet, so others will be better able to say. If the structure is complex enough that I have to "work it out," then it's sort of moot. But, as ...
Joel Derfner's user avatar
  • 16.5k
5 votes

In contemporary spoken Latin, do people mark the 1st-declension ablative case?

I had a Latin teacher who insisted that the long a at the end of ablatives of first declension nouns be pronounced for a noticeably longer time than other vowels. This was the only long vowel she ...
vdicarlo's user avatar
5 votes

Was -i used as genitive ending for first declension masculines?

Sort of, but technically "no". It seems that -i was sometimes used as a genitive singular ending for masculine names from Greek that end in -ēs in the nominative. But although many of these ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.3k
3 votes

Do first-declension neuter nouns or adjectives have plural forms?

I just found that Nouvelle méthode pour apprendre facilement la langue latine, by Claude Lancelot (? et al?), which I quoted in my previous question about Pascha, includes this word in a list of &...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.3k
3 votes

How are "Arsaces" and "Gotarzes" declined, and why?

Here are all the references that I have found so far that have relevant information about the declension of nouns ending in -es that come from Greek. These references don't specifically mention ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.3k
1 vote

Is the unmarked 1st-declension ablative in writing ever jarring or confusing?

All languages have homographs. In English we have (for example) “read” /ri:d/ and “read” /rɛd/. It belongs to basic literacy to be able to distinguish the two when reading aloud.
fdb's user avatar
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