8

While many romanizations of ethnonyms take the 2nd declension noun pattern (Germani, Galli, Veneti, Helvetii and so on), the 1st declension, as Joonas noted, also occurs, although I am struggling to come up with any examples beyond Belgae. 3rd declension is also found, but is rare and seems to always be of pre-classical origin. However, the main reason I am ...


8

I looked up the Greek word in the etymological dictionaries of Chantraine and Beekes. They both say that your hypothesis #1 (an Oscan loan) was indeed proposed by Cuny in 1908, but that this was rejected by Niedermann in a 1917 Indogermanische Forschungen article, which can be viewed here. Niedermann says, if I understand correctly, that the specific meaning ...


6

I don't think -theca is relevant. To me, it seems that Italian azteco and Latin aztecus just represent an analysis where the last "a" in the original Nahuatl word is removed, giving the root aztec-, and then this is treated like the root of a regular first/second adjective, taking the thematic vowel -o- for the stem of the masculine and neuter forms and ...


6

The letter Z began to again be used shortly after the conquest of Greece (late 2nd century BC, early 1st century BC), but did not see a "formal" introduction into the Latin alphabet until later, as described by Cicero, Quintilian, and others. After the conquest of Greece in the first century BC, Z (and Y) was reintroduced into Latin but only to convey the ...


5

There certainly are other indeclinable adjectives: damnas frugi (gramatically, this is really a "dative of service") nēquam potis (though pote sometimes occurs in the neuter) quot (also: aliquot) tŏt (also: totidem) And, after tres, almost every numerical adjective, e.g. quattuor, decem, viginti, mille, etc. Allen & Greenough discusses this, along with ...


4

The Greek ἀήρ seems to have entered (post-Biblical) Hebrew via Aramaic ʼwwyr. Syriac Aramaic also has the more Greek-looking form ʼʼr. The replacement of an intervocalic glottal stop by a semi-vowel (here: ʼāʼer > ʼāwer) is typical of Aramaic, and other Semitic languages.


4

Your description of the Spanish treatment of "azteca" reminds me of the classical Latin noun Belga, "a Belgian". Belga is masculine, although it looks feminine and follows the first declension. In addition to that noun, there is the perfectly normally behaving adjective Belgicus. There are similar pairs of nouns and adjectives in English, too, like "Swede" ...


2

Latin, as a general rule, has two different types of words. The first type inflect fully, and for adjectives that means a full set of case, number, and gender forms. The second type don't inflect at all and use the same form for every case (usually these are only foreign names). And as far as I know, every adjective in the language falls into the first ...


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