49

It's true that in Classical Latin, ille is a demonstrative pronoun (corresponding to that), not an article; indeed, articles as we know them in English do not exist in Classical Latin. However, that's not the entire story. Ille in Classical Latin The meaning of ille in Classical Latin is not so narrow as to exclude its use in these book titles. Allen and ...


13

As you say, “ly” is an early form of the Romance article; you can compare the Old French article for nom. sing. masc. "li". Aquinas uses it in his commentary on the Gospel of John 1,1 explicitly as the equivalent of the Greek article in its specifying sense: Ut ergo Evangelista hanc supereminentiam divini verbi significaret, ipsum verbum absque ulla ...


12

It's the other way around, actually: Latin lost this -s, and Greek retained it! In older Latin, and fossilized phrases like pater familiās "father of the household", you see the genitive singular in -ās. The standard explanation I've seen for this change is influence from the second declension (-us -ī). The second declension in Latin originally had ...


10

The use and non-use of the definite article in the language of the Greek Bible is irregular and often unexpected. At least partially this is due to the fact that the authors of most of these writings were native speakers of Aramaic, a language which (at least at its Middle Aramaic stage) does not have a clear-cut definite article. Speakers of Aramaic must ...


9

You have it backwards. The sigma is original. From Sihler 263.7: Gen.sg. PIE *-es, *-os, *-s are all attested forms of the gen.sg. marker and all three would yield much the same results in the historically attested IE languages when added to the stem *-eH2-. Most authorities assume a full grade form, and G ending-accented forms in *-ᾱς, Att.-Ion. *-ης, are ...


9

It depends on the position of αὐτός. When it's in attributive position, it means 'same': ὁ αὐτὸς δοῦλος (also, more rarely, δοῦλος ὁ αὐτός or ὁ δοῦλος ὁ αὐτός), 'the same slave.' Example: Antiphon 5.50 ('On the murder of Herodes'): ποτέρῳ οὖν εἰκός ἐστι πιστεῦσαι, τῷ διὰ τέλους τὸν αὐτὸν ἀεὶ λόγον λέγοντι, ἢ τῷ τοτὲ μὲν φάσκοντι τοτὲ δ᾽ οὔ; Which, then, ...


8

English: I followed the road to Sparta. This could mean two things, which will become clear if you add more context: Departing Athens I took the road to Sparta. I followed the road to Sparta for twenty minutes, until I came across a soothsayer's booth. This means there is a road to Sparta, and I followed it. I departed Gytheion for Sparta and took ...


7

Isolated usages of unus as an indefinite article have been identified in Old and Classical Latin, but generally speaking unus and ille did not establish themselves as articles until Late and early Medieval Latin. Unus Regarding unus, Harm Pinkster provides several commonly cited examples of unus as article or article-like from the 4th century and earlier: ...


6

I happen to have seen one in Marracci's Refutatio Alcorani (1698), Prodromus, Vita Mahumeti, Caput 24 (https://books.google.nl/books?id=HwY_AAAAcAAJ&pg=PA29): ... ne fortè ... per technas Imperium à se τῷ Aly destinatum præriperent. Literally: "... lest perhaps ... they would by artifices snatch away the Empire destined by him for Ali." Elsewhere ...


6

As you probably already know, Ancient Greek has a syntactic distinction between attributive and predicative modifiers. ὁ MOD NOUN or ὁ NOUN ὁ MOD are "attributive" (the MOD NOUN), while ὁ NOUN MOD and MOD ὁ NOUN are "predicative" (the NOUN is MOD). Notably, though, this syntax can be used even when the modifier isn't an adjective: in this ...


5

I would say, definite. Greek uses definite articles somewhat differently than English does. In English, the definite article is used before a definite noun, unless the noun is proper or modified by a pronoun. "the tent" "my tent" "that tent" "Socrates" In Greek, the definite article is used before definite nouns, ...


5

http://perseus.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.53:9:58.LSJ ὅ τι (or ὅτι) is combined with a superlative adverb or a superlative adjective to mean “as X as possible”. In both cases it seems that it is never used with a definite article (see the quotations in LSJ). In the case of the adverbial usage this makes sense, and the adjectival usage is ...


4

I think rather, that this "ille" is the translation of Mileny´s joke: As Christopher Robins father objects, tat he schould not call him "winnie", because he was a boy, Christopher Robin answers that therefore he calls him Winnie the Pooh. "Don´t You know, what "the" means?" Greetings, Manuel Haus


2

The last words of Augustus are commonly cited as: Ācta est fābula. Plaudite! The story is finished. Applaud! Suetonius disagrees, and quotes a similar sentiment in Greek instead. But the objective historical accuracy of Suetonius is debatable too, so, leaving that aside… This is a present perfective form in Latin, indicating that the action was ...


1

As Latin lacks articles, when translating into English, one supplies them (or not) as appropriate to the meaning. The cultural context only matters if it casts light on the meaning. Assuming it is clear without cultual context (but just by reading Seneca) that Seneca did not mean that each person is helped to be good by a god who may be different from ...


1

Seneca was a proponent of Stoicism; a philosophy which urged a dutiful self-discipline; detachment from the feckless passions; steadfastness in friendship; and, fortitude in adversity. It reasoned that all men were the offspring of God and, therefore, brothers--each deserving of compassion and justice. Though pantheistic, Stoicism conjectured God as present ...


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