50 votes
Accepted

Why is "ille" used in Winnie ille Pu and Hobbitus Ille?

It's true that in Classical Latin, ille is a demonstrative pronoun (corresponding to that), not an article; indeed, articles as we know them in English do not exist in Classical Latin. However, that'...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar
14 votes

When did the word "ly" enter the Latin language and where did it come from?

As you say, “ly” is an early form of the Romance article; you can compare the Old French article for nom. sing. masc. "li". Aquinas uses it in his commentary on the Gospel of John 1,1 explicitly as ...
fdb's user avatar
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12 votes
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Where does the final -ς in genitive feminine singularis -ᾱς/-ης/τῆς come from?

It's the other way around, actually: Latin lost this -s, and Greek retained it! In older Latin, and fossilized phrases like pater familiās "father of the household", you see the genitive ...
Draconis's user avatar
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10 votes
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Why is there no definite article in the phrase Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος?

The use and non-use of the definite article in the language of the Greek Bible is irregular and often unexpected. At least partially this is due to the fact that the authors of most of these writings ...
fdb's user avatar
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9 votes
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How would I emphasize a definite noun? (Greek)

It depends on the position of αὐτός. When it's in attributive position, it means 'same': ὁ αὐτὸς δοῦλος (also, more rarely, δοῦλος ὁ αὐτός or ὁ δοῦλος ὁ αὐτός), 'the same slave.' Example: Antiphon 5....
cnread's user avatar
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9 votes
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Why is the Greek definite article τη duplicated in this sentence?

English: I followed the road to Sparta. This could mean two things, which will become clear if you add more context: Departing Athens I took the road to Sparta. I followed the road to Sparta ...
Cerberus's user avatar
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9 votes

Where does the final -ς in genitive feminine singularis -ᾱς/-ης/τῆς come from?

You have it backwards. The sigma is original. From Sihler 263.7: Gen.sg. PIE *-es, *-os, *-s are all attested forms of the gen.sg. marker and all three would yield much the same results in the ...
cmw's user avatar
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7 votes

Use of Greek article in Latin to clarify use of foreign indeclinable nouns

I happen to have seen one in Marracci's Refutatio Alcorani (1698), Prodromus, Vita Mahumeti, Caput 24 (https://books.google.nl/books?id=HwY_AAAAcAAJ&pg=PA29): ... ne fortè ... per technas ...
Jasper May's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

Can the use of articles be traced back to Late/Vulgar Latin?

Isolated usages of unus as an indefinite article have been identified in Old and Classical Latin, but generally speaking unus and ille did not establish themselves as articles until Late and early ...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar
7 votes

Why is the Greek definite article τη duplicated in this sentence?

As you probably already know, Ancient Greek has a syntactic distinction between attributive and predicative modifiers. ὁ MOD NOUN or ὁ NOUN ὁ MOD are "attributive" (the MOD NOUN), while ὁ ...
Draconis's user avatar
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5 votes
Accepted

In the sentence, 'Honor your old teacher', should the noun be definite or indefinite? (Greek)

I would say, definite. Greek uses definite articles somewhat differently than English does. In English, the definite article is used before a definite noun, unless the noun is proper or modified by a ...
Draconis's user avatar
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5 votes
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Should the Greek definite article be omitted in a ὅτι phrase?

http://perseus.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.53:9:58.LSJ ὅ τι (or ὅτι) is combined with a superlative adverb or a superlative adjective to mean “as X as possible”. In both cases it ...
fdb's user avatar
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5 votes

Why is "ille" used in Winnie ille Pu and Hobbitus Ille?

I think rather, that this "ille" is the translation of Mileny´s joke: As Christopher Robins father objects, tat he schould not call him "winnie", because he was a boy, Christopher Robin answers that ...
Manuel Haus's user avatar
3 votes

What is the correct translation for "The story is not over"?

The last words of Augustus are commonly cited as: Ācta est fābula. Plaudite! The story is finished. Applaud! Suetonius disagrees, and quotes a similar sentiment in Greek instead. But the ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
1 vote

Seneca’s Epistula Moralis XLI: "God" or "a god"?

As Latin lacks articles, when translating into English, one supplies them (or not) as appropriate to the meaning. The cultural context only matters if it casts light on the meaning. Assuming it is ...
C Monsour's user avatar
  • 1,646
1 vote

Seneca’s Epistula Moralis XLI: "God" or "a god"?

Seneca was a proponent of Stoicism; a philosophy which urged a dutiful self-discipline; detachment from the feckless passions; steadfastness in friendship; and, fortitude in adversity. It reasoned ...
tony's user avatar
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