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16 votes
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Why Is This Noun in the Singular?

It is because cunae, -arum, f, is the word for a single crib. The singular cuna is never used. This is similar to how castra is a single camp. Such a word is called a plurale tantum (plural: pluralia ...
Sebastian Koppehel's user avatar
12 votes
Accepted

When should nūllus be singular vs plural?

Uncountable nouns will always take the singular, except when they're being thought of as multiple discrete units. For instance, magna pecunia = a vast sum of money, whereas magnae pecuniae = several ...
Kingshorsey's user avatar
  • 7,162
11 votes

Is the Roman personification of chaos masculine?

Doubtful. In 860 of the same play, we get: stat chaos densum tenebraeque turpes Chaos here is neuter (because of densum). Lewis and Short says that Chaos is masculine when personified as a god ...
cmw's user avatar
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10 votes
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Jenney's First Year Latin, Lesson 37, comparatives with "quam"

I think I understand the root of your confusion, and the simple answer to your question: Why don't both sides of the quam agree? Is this: They do agree. I am more like you than he. A first point ...
brianpck's user avatar
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9 votes
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Why is "astra" in plural in this sentence?

Mathematici Graeci saepe lunam astraque intuiti sunt Greek mathematicians often contemplated the moon and stars. It's plural accusative because the speaker thinks the Greeks thought about more than ...
lly's user avatar
  • 776
9 votes
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Do Possessive Pronouns Always Agree with the Thing Being Possessed?

In my opinion, the most likely translation of the sentece is: Our sea has many docks Mare Nostrum was a common name given by the Romans to the Mediterranean Sea around the I century AD, since the ...
Rafael's user avatar
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8 votes
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A question regarding the agreement of possessive pronouns

In Latin, an adjective always agrees with the (pro)noun it modifies in gender, number, and case. Since Latin is inflected, position is not an important deciding factor, though it can be relevant. Let'...
brianpck's user avatar
  • 41.9k
8 votes

A question regarding the agreement of possessive pronouns

Adjectives always agree with the noun they are modifying in case, gender, and number. Since mea is the nominative feminine singular form of meus, mea, meum ("my" or "mine"), it goes with filia and ...
Sapphira's user avatar
  • 2,103
8 votes
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SPQR: Why not Romani?

Take a look at this older question for gender and number of an adjective referring to several nouns. There are two basic cases. The adjective can be attributive or predicative. If you want to say "The ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
8 votes
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Grammatical number agreement in this sentence

In this sentence, "dies mensis primus" is one noun phrase, serving as the sentence's subject ("the first day of the month"), "nominatur" is the verb, and "kalendae&...
Agnes's user avatar
  • 466
8 votes

Shouldn't this est be a sunt in this sentence?

The use of a singular verb, "remorata est"--"(it is) delayed", is because of the compounded subject, "mors ac reipublicae poena", being treated as a single concept. In ...
tony's user avatar
  • 9,058
7 votes
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Is "Mei Uxor animusque" a correct translation of "My wife and soul"?

Usually an adjective (and here meus works like an adjective) takes the form of the closest referent when used attributively. The masculine plural would be used in a sentence like "the wife and soul ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
7 votes

Is the Roman personification of chaos masculine?

The adjective maesto determines the noun clamore and is therefore in a masculine form. The corresponding neuter form is also maesto. The thing that reveals the connection to clamore is case: both ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
7 votes
Accepted

Why feminine is used in "haec locuta"?

Locuta doesn't go with haec, but rather with Ariadna. Locuta is singular, but haec here is neuter plural. "Ariadne, having said (locuta, fem. sing. nom.) these things (haec, neut. plur. acc.), ...
cmw's user avatar
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6 votes
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Ordinal adjectives for single things modifying plural noun?

It appears that the noun can be singular or plural but the ordinals should be singular. That is, you'd need capitulum or capitula with primum et secundum. If you go with capitula prima et secunda, it ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes

Is the Roman personification of chaos masculine?

Indeed, the Greek borrowing was mostly used an a neuter noun in Latin but occasionally we see examples of chaos used as a masculine noun (one source claims that there is only one use of chaos in Latin ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
  • 11.7k
6 votes

How should "Aurora's Vow" be translated into Latin?

I actually think you are spot on! For this usage of the genitive, there is little need to match the genders of the nouns. Both Aurora and votum are their own, separate entities, so they do not need to ...
Sam K's user avatar
  • 3,998
6 votes

Constituendi autem sunt qui sint in amicitia fines et quasi termini diligendi (Cic. Amic. 56)

As I understand the first sentence, its subject is qui (together with the phrase after et), which is plural, referring to fines; constituendi is an adjective agreeing with that. Cutting out most of ...
Ben Kovitz's user avatar
  • 16.2k
6 votes
Accepted

Deponent verb participle gender

It is the second option with arbitrata. For the purposes of agreement, you can think of the participle as an adjective, so that Syra arbitrata est and Syra Romana est have exactly the same form. The ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes

Is "their" being masculine or feminine?

The form of suus (and meus and others) only depends on the noun it modifies. The gender, number, or other details of the owner do not matter at all. It might be helpful to think of suus as an ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

Why "ipse hic" is used here and not "ipse tu"?

The pronoun ipse refers to the implicit pronoun tu. While ipse can be used with personal or other pronouns like you list, it is also often used on its own even when referring to actors that are ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes

Why plural "laudantium" with singular "militiae"?

Militiae is the genitive singular of militia, which is grammatically singular, but which (like other collective nouns) designates a plurality. Laudantium and dicentium are genitive plural. They agree ...
fdb's user avatar
  • 17.9k
5 votes

Why is plural of “mons pubis” not “montes pubum”

Pubes, genitive pubis means (as the dictionary tells us) "the signs of manhood, i.e. the hair which appears on the body at the age of puberty". It does not mean a single pubic hair, but - like the ...
fdb's user avatar
  • 17.9k
5 votes

Jenney's First Year Latin, Lesson 37, comparatives with "quam"

The two parts of the exercise are two different statements. The first holds the speaker (the subject) to be more like the addressee than someone else is. This becomes obvious if you add ‘is’ to the ...
Tom Cotton's user avatar
  • 18.2k
4 votes

How can "visio" and "novus" be correctly combined to mean "a new vision/perspective"?

Since visio is feminine, nova fits while novus does not. So: Nova Visio does the trick as well as: Visio Nova But remember that in Latin word endings change according to the grammatical ...
Rafael's user avatar
  • 11.6k
4 votes
Accepted

Can a morphologically singular collective noun be syntactically plural?

Allen & Greenough, New Latin grammar, states (§317, d): A collective noun commonly takes a verb in the singular; but the plural is often found with collective nouns when individuals are though of....
cnread's user avatar
  • 20.4k
4 votes

Is "Mei Uxor animusque" a correct translation of "My wife and soul"?

The use of the masculine plural "Mei" in "Mei Uxor animusque" would not follow the preferred pattern of adjective agreement in Latin. When an attributive adjective semantically ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.7k
4 votes

Gender of antecedent of "hoc" in phrase "hoc quod"?

Grammatically, there is no antecedent, hence no agreement is necessary (or possible) The demonstrative hoc doesn't always have an antecedent. There is none here, any more than there is an antecedent ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.7k
4 votes
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Why is "promissum" (singular) used here and not "promissa" (plural)?

A promissum, -i is a frequently substantivized perfect passive participle of promitto. In this sense, it's just a "promise," and facere promissum is one way of saying, "to keep [not ...
brianpck's user avatar
  • 41.9k
3 votes
Accepted

Why plural "laudantium" with singular "militiae"?

In my interpretation, multitudo is accompanied by two discrete genitive constructions: the partitive genitive militiae caelestis (so, not the whole heavenly host but just much of it), and then a ...
cnread's user avatar
  • 20.4k

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