In her study on Latin teaching materials in Antiquity Dickey (2010: 193) provides the following example on the influence of the rule of Greek at issue here on Latin (NB: the author of this article provides a perspective which is, as you will see, quite different from the one assumed in the question above).
"The person who provided this inflectional information, moreover, was not fully competent in Latin. In line 9 he uses a singular verb with a neuter plural subject: horum duorum cetera ut Cato declinatur. In Latin of all periods plural subjects require plural verbs, regardless of their gender, but in classical Greek a neuter plural [subject] does indeed take a singular [verb] (...) The provider of this inflectional information must therefore have himself been a well-educated Greek speaker whose Latin studies had not yet progressed to a very high level: he knew the rule that in formal written language a neuter plural subject takes a singular verb, but he did not grasp that that refinement did not apply to Latin".
Putting cases due to influence from Greek aside, I'd say that possible counterexamples to the well-known rule that Latin neuter plural nouns do not trigger singular verb agreement can be explained away for different reasons: for example, attraction with another nearer NP, as in the following example from Sallust, commented on in this link.
sed ei cariora semper omnia quam decus atque pudicitia fuit (Sall. Cat. 25,3).
Apropos of this, let me tell you an anecdote. After reading the following assertion found in this work ("Another Greek peculiarity, 'neuter plural nouns take a singular verb', is not entirely without a parallel in Latin (Livy IX, 6): Paludamentaque detracta miserationem fecit"), I said to myself: Eureka! Not only I found a relevant example for your question, but I also solved a previous question of mine (see this link). That's really killing two birds with one stone, I thought. But my happiness only lasted a couple of minutes. I checked Livy's text and, alas!, I realized that the author of the abovementioned statement quite probably misanalyzed the sentence (NB: in any case Livy's text is interesting: e.g., see the non-trivial addition of id in some editions). As we say in Spanish, "¡mi gozo en un pozo!" (lit. 'my joy in a well!') or, should I say, "¡ nuestro gozo en un pozo!", since this is not an example of what you're looking for either.