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Questions tagged [vulgata]

Questions about the language used in the Vulgate (or Vulgata), a late fourth-century translation of the Bible.

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The Latin word “Have” rather than “Ave” as a translation of the Greek word Χαῖρε?

According to BlueLetterBible, the Latin Vulgate translation of Matthew 26:49 states, The Greek text from the Textus Receptus states, ΜΘʹ καὶ εὐθέως προσελθὼν τῷ Ἰησοῦ εἶπεν Χαῖρε ῥαββί καὶ ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
17 votes
2 answers
670 views

Why is the passive participle in Matthew 10:1 rendered as active in English?

I'm a little confused by the clause that begins Matthew 10: 10:1 Et convocatis duodecim discipulis suis, dedit illis potestatem spirituum immundorum, ut ejicerent eos, et curarent omnem languorem,...
ktm5124's user avatar
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17 votes
1 answer
321 views

Why did Hieronymus choose to use Latin tenses that don't exist in Hebrew when translating for the Vulgata?

Nisi Dominus ædificaverit domum, in vanum laboraverunt qui ædificant eam. [psalm 126:1] I am pretty sure that classical Hebrew has no future perfect tense, so how did Jerome arrive at his ...
Senex Ægypti Parvi's user avatar
15 votes
3 answers
2k views

"Deus tu conversus vivificabis nos..."

This verse from Psalm lxxxiv: Deus tu conversus vivificabis nos: et plebs tua laetabitur in te. Appears in the Parvum Officium of the BVM (and other liturgical prayers that currently escape my ...
davidrmcharles's user avatar
15 votes
2 answers
1k views

In Romans 3:22, why did Jerome prefer to use crēdunt rather than fīdunt?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus (1550) states, ΚΒʹ δικαιοσύνη δὲ θεοῦ διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς πάντας καὶ ἐπὶ πάντας τοὺς πιστεύοντας οὐ γάρ ἐστιν διαστολή TR, 1550 which Jerome ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
14 votes
3 answers
1k views

In Judith in Vulgate, why does Jerome transliterate the name "Arphaxad" with 'ph', but he transliterates "Holofernes" with an 'f'?

In Judith in Vulgate, why does Jerome transliterate the name "Arphaxad" with 'ph', but he transliterates "Holofernes" with an 'f'? By the time of Jerome, both 'f' and 'ph' were the ...
FlatAssembler's user avatar
14 votes
2 answers
964 views

New testament Romans 2:8 - Why is nominative used instead of accusative like the previous verse?

See the Vatican version here: 6 qui reddet unicuique secundum opera eius: 7 his quidem, qui secundum patientiam boni operis gloriam et honorem et incorruptionem quaerunt, vitam aeternam; ...
Disenchanted Toad's user avatar
14 votes
1 answer
182 views

Why is "repetunt" 3rd pl active in Luke 12:20 (Vulgate)?

I was reading today's gospel from the Roman calendar and noticed this in Luke 12:20: dixit autem illi Deus stulte hac nocte animam tuam repetunt a te quae autem parasti cuius erunt I was struck by ...
sixty4bit's user avatar
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12 votes
2 answers
459 views

"Dies unus"—non primus?

Genese 1:5 Hieronymus traduxit: Appellavitque lucem Diem, et tenebras Noctem: factumque est vespere et mane, dies unus. Cur "unus", non "primus"? Nonne numerum ordinalem significat? Nonne "unus" ...
Ben Kovitz's user avatar
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11 votes
5 answers
8k views

On the literal meaning of "in saecula saeculorum"

Literally, this phrase (found originally in the New Testament of the Vulgata) is translated as "into [the] ages of [the] ages". It's supposed to be an expression of eternity, and it's commonly ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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11 votes
2 answers
1k views

Gen. 1:20 is reptile ablative?

In Genesis 1:20 in the Vulgate: Dixit etiam Deus : Producant aquae reptile animae viventis, et volatile super terram sub firmamento caeli. why is it not reptiles animas?
Stephen Perencevich's user avatar
11 votes
3 answers
1k views

Parsing "quae cum audisset"

I'm having trouble parsing the phrase "quae cum audisset," which I've seen translated as "when [subject] heard" or "and when [subject] heard" in the latin vulgate. For ...
Josh's user avatar
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11 votes
2 answers
1k views

What exactly do "ut" and "quid" mean in "Deus meus, ut quid dereliquisti me?" ("My God, why have you forsaken me?")?

"Ut quid" there is usually translated as "why", but I know the usual word for "why" is "cur". So, why the weird phrasing? I can kind of see how "ut quid&...
FlatAssembler's user avatar
11 votes
1 answer
723 views

In Vulgate Lk 22: 62, "Et egressus foras Petrus flevit amare.", it says. How to understand "flevit amare"?

I know "flevit" means "wept" and "amare" means "to love", but the Greek text is "ἔκλαυσεν πικρῶς", which means "wept bitterly". If I parse ...
kigawas's user avatar
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11 votes
1 answer
451 views

Did "benedicere" ever mean "to blaspheme"?

I was struck by some verses in Chapter 21 of 3 Regum, Vulgata. This tells the story of Naboth, an Israelite who owned a vineyard which was adjacent to the palace of the Israeli King, Achab. Naboth ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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11 votes
1 answer
537 views

Which grammatical format is the double-perfect system as found in the Vulgate?

Question: Please show me a grammar resource that explains what the following construction is: John 1:24 "missi fuerant" John 1:40 "secuti fuerant" John 2:10 "inebriati fuerint" John 3:3 "natus fuerit"...
BrennickC's user avatar
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10 votes
1 answer
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Why "dilatasti" instead of "dilatavisti" in Psalm 4:2?

(Psalm 4:2) cum invocarem exaudivit me Deus iustitiae meae in tribulatione dilatasti mihi miserere mei et exaudi orationem meam When I called upon him, the God of my justice heard me: when I was in ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
10 votes
2 answers
283 views

Why are "esurivi" and "sitivi" used in perfect, but "hospes eram" in imperfect in the same context?

There is a fragment of Gospel of Matthew (in Vulgata): (...), esurivi enim et dedistis mihi manducare, sitivi et dedistis mihi bibere, hospes eram et collegistis me (...) My question is: Why ...
Marek Lipka's user avatar
9 votes
3 answers
648 views

Translation of Ps 16(15), 6 (Vulgata)

Verse in question is as follows: Funes ceciderunt mihi in praeclaris; etenim haereditas mea praeclara est mihi. It would seem to me that meaning is something like this: Funes: ropes, bonds, ...
user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
248 views

Why is the proper name Apollos not declined in the Vulgate

Saint Apollos was a companion of Saint Paul mentioned several times in the New Testament. In the Latin Vulgate, his name is transliterated as an indeclinable noun, Apollo. My question is, why was his ...
Figulus's user avatar
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9 votes
1 answer
414 views

Use of the gerund in the Vulgate bible

I was reading Luke 10:25 in the Vulgate bible, trying my best to translate as literally as possible. But I found it hard to translate the question that the expert of law (legisperitus) poses. (...
ktm5124's user avatar
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8 votes
3 answers
380 views

What's the logic behind "eritque Israel in proverbium" (Vulgate bible)

In the Vulgate bible, I encountered the sentence, Eritque Israel in proverbium, et in fabulam cunctis populis. And Israel will be a proverb, and a story for all people. (1 Kings 9:7) I'm curious to ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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8 votes
2 answers
1k views

How do you parse "futurum est" in Matthew 2:13?

I'm a little confused about a verse in Matthew 2 of the Vulgate Bible. Futurum est enim ut Herodes quærat puerum ad perdendum eum. (Matthew 2:13) Douay-Rheims translates this as, "For it will ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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8 votes
3 answers
503 views

Is this Latin statement idiomatic? (Can't quite link it to the English translation)

Consider the Bible verse 1 Corinthians 1:25. There are varied English translations of this verse (see here). The two most common are: For the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
567 views

Why "idolatria" instead of "idololatria"?

Although the idea of idolatry has been present for a long time, I believe St. Paul is the first to use the term εἰδωλολατρία, e.g. Gal 5:20. (Corrections welcome!) Two surprises come when we look at ...
brianpck's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
480 views

When did the infinitive of purpose arise?

In Classical Latin, purpose would normally be expressed with ut, or ad with a gerund, or a supine with a verb of motion, or numerous other ways. However, in later and vulgar Latin (most notably the ...
Draconis's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
168 views

Why "decorem indutus est" instead of "decore indutus est"?

Psalm 92 v. 1 Dóminus regnávit, decórem indútus est: * indútus est Dóminus fortitúdinem, et præcínxit se. The Lord hath reigned, he is clothed with beauty: * the Lord is clothed with strength, and ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
8 votes
1 answer
407 views

"Lead us not into temptation" or "put us not to the test"?

I have a follow-up to this question which has two parts2 concerning the phrase, "Et ne nos inducas in temptationem." To me it seems that the primary meaning of the English word "...
Vegawatcher's user avatar
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7 votes
3 answers
959 views

regem Balæ, ipsa est Segor

I’m a bit stumped about why in the phrase in the question title (Vulgate, Gen. 14:2), it’s ipsa and not ipse. What is the feminine noun to which ipsa refers? inirent bellum contra Bara regem ...
D. A. Hosek's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
552 views

What's it called when a verb shares the same root as its object or modifier?

I have noticed in both Greek and Latin that sometimes a verb shares the same root as its object or modifier. This construction looks funny to me as an English speaker, as we don't often encounter this ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
265 views

Shouldn't "decursus" be accusative in Psalm 1:3?

(Psalm 1:3, Clementine Vulgate) Et erit tamquam lignum quod plantatum est secus decursus aquarum, quod fructum suum dabit in tempore suo: et folium ejus non defluet; et omnia quæcumque faciet ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
533 views

In Vulgate, Matthaeus 4:23, it says "et prædicans Evangelium regni". Shouldn't it be "regno" (dative) rather than "regni" (genitive)?

In Vulgate, Matthaeus 4:23, it says "et prædicans Evangelium regni". Shouldn't it be "regno" (dative) rather than "regni" (genitive)? He was talking the gospel TO the ...
FlatAssembler's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
199 views

Why is SoS 8.5 ‘dē dēsertō’ not interpreted as ‘from the forsaken’?

Sources and translations Vulgate 8.5 opens with this passages: Quæ est ista quæ ascendit dē dēsertō, dēliciīs affluēns,  innīxa super dīlēctum suum? This is rendered in the 2011 translation to ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
232 views

Reading a snippet of 15th century handwriting in Latin

The Lilly library has a Gutenberg bible on display and the page that it is open to varies. This week the page had a marginal comment in it, which is unusual for this particular copy, and I was hoping ...
Noah Snyder's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
245 views

Gen 1:28 only animals that move or all living beings?

The book of Genesis, 1:28 reads: Crescite et multiplicamini et replete terram et subicite eam et dominamini piscibus maris et volatilibus caeli et universis animantibus, quae moventur super terram ...
Rafael's user avatar
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7 votes
2 answers
535 views

When does si mean "that"?

In the Vulgate (Acts 26:22-23), I came across the following: ...nihil extra dicens quam ea quæ prophetæ locuti sunt futura esse, et Moyses, si passibilis Christus, si primus ex resurrectione ...
Expedito Bipes's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
220 views

Is this translation of Numbers 5:3 from the Vulgate correct?

The Vulgata, in Numbers 5:2-3, says: [2] Praecipe filiis Israel, ut ejiciant de castris omnem leprosum, et qui semine fluit, pollutusque est super mortuo: [3] tam masculum quam feminam ejicite de ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
1k views

Translation of Greek "ἅπτω" in John 20:17

The English versions of John 20:17 show two types of accounts: Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father and Jesus says to her, "Do not touch me, for ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
1k views

Why is an accusative mode needed?

Consider Deuteronomy 28:30, in the Vulgata: Uxorem accipias, et alius dormiat cum ea. Domum ædifices, et non habites in ea. Plantes vineam, et non vindemies eam. So uxorem, domum, vineam, and eam ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
660 views

Elevatis oculis?

In the Sixto-Clementine Vulgate, Genesis 22:4 reads: die autem tertio, elevatis oculis, vidit locum procul The Douay-Rheims translates: And on the third day, lifting up his eyes, he saw the ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
869 views

Why is domui dative in 1 Timothy 3:4?

1 Tim 3:4 in the vulgate is: suae domui bene praepositum: filios habentem subditos cum omni castitate The DRC1752 renders this into English as: One that ruleth well his own house, having his ...
Josh's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
660 views

Vulgate Latin: usque ad pecus

St Jerome has in Gen 7:23, “ab homine usque ad pecus” but pecus is nominative (or perhaps genitive if the word is pecu) and not accusative. Am I misunderstanding something here?
D. A. Hosek's user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
616 views

What does a "si" clause followed by a "nisi" clause mean?

In the Vulgate Bible, I came across this sentence. Vivit Dominus Deus Israel, in cuius conspectu sto, si erit annis his ros et pluvia, nisi iuxta oris mei verba. [As] the Lord God of Israel lives, in ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
385 views

Are plural Latin participles sometimes translated singular? E.g., "peregratis" in Acts 19:1

Acts 19:1 in the Vulgate is: Factum est autem cum Apollo esset Corinthi, ut Paulus peragratis superioribus partibus veniret Ephesum, et inveniret quosdam discipulos If I'm parsing peregratis ...
Josh's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
835 views

Non prævalebunt adversus/adversum eam

After several years, a Bible verse I thought I knew well just blew my mind. (Well, they sometimes do, but not in the grammatical sense.) Namely, Mt 16:18 says, And so I say to you, you are Peter, and ...
Rafael's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
513 views

Case of "leo" in Judges 14:5

Judges 14:5 in the Vulgata reads: Descendit itaque Samson cum patre suo et matre in Thamnatha. Cumque venissent ad vineas oppidi, apparuit catulus leonis saevus, et rugiens, et occurrit ei. I don't ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
595 views

Why is the accusative not used in Judges 5:23?

This verse reads: Maledicite terrae Meroz, dixit angelus Domini : maledicite habitatoribus ejus, quia non venerunt ad auxilium Domini, in adjutorium fortissimorum ejus. The context is that of ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
782 views

Why is "Gavisus sum" translated "now I rejoice" instead of "I rejoiced"?

In the vulgate, Philippians 4:10 begins with the following: Gavisus sum autem in Domino vehementer The Douay-Rheims translates this: Now I rejoice in the Lord exceedingly I'm having trouble ...
Josh's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
482 views

In Matthew 27, why does the Vulgate call the graves of people who were resurrected along with Jesus "monumentum", but Jesus's grave "sepulchrum"?

In Matthew 27, why does the Vulgate call the graves of people who were resurrected along with Jesus "monumentum", but Jesus's grave "sepulchrum"? Matthew 27:53 says, in Vulgate: ...
FlatAssembler's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
438 views

What does "his" mean in this verse?

In John 1:12 there's the word his. What does this word mean in this context? 12 Quotquot autem receperunt eum, dedit eis potestatem filios Dei fieri, his qui credunt in nomine ejus: But as ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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