Questions tagged [phonetics]

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7 votes
1 answer
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Does "laviniaque" from Vergil's Aeneid point to Romance palatalization?

The second i in "laviniaque" from the 2nd line of Aeneid is supposed to be consonantal to fit the hexameter; therefore the pronunciation should be something like: /la'wi.nja.qʷe/. My ...
VivatLinguaLatina's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
87 views

What is the story of Latin letters U, V?

I recently saw a video stating that when the Romans imported the upsilon(Y) from Greek, they cut the the bottom line from Y and remained V which was not read as V as we know but U. So V(letter) = U(...
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3 votes
0 answers
94 views

What is the modern day pronunciation of v in Latin as in van or as a w? And is the c soft as in cellar or hard as in cat?

What is the modern day pronunciation of v in Latin (as in van) or as a w sound? And is the c soft as in cellar or hard as in cat?
Sarah's user avatar
  • 31
2 votes
1 answer
100 views

From what date do we find spellings with V for B?

In late Latin, there was frequent confusion between B and V between vowels (a position where the distinction was eventually lost throughout the Romance languages), and even at the start of words (...
Asteroides's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
119 views

Does the pronunciation of 'gn' depend on the environment?

I have heard different pronunciations of 'gn': [ŋn], [gn], [ɲ:]. Given a fixed era and dialect, is 'gn' always pronounced the same way or does the pronunciation depend on the environment? My ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
272 views

When did "ae" become [e]?

I know about the differences between Reconstructed and Church pronunciation. I have wondered when they arose. I have already researched it on StackExchange where "V" had already become [v] ...
Blazkovitz's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
696 views

Why is the prefix con- sometimes short, sometimes long?

A friend sent me this image: Her question was simple: Is the Latin any good? The Latin indeed is good, and if one accepts the English to be in LOLcat, the English checks out as well. However … I also ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
147 views

Scientific name for living toys

In a world were living toys exist and are known (like Toy Story but with their sentience been common knowledge), what would be the Latin scientific name for a toy? In a similar way of how homo sapiens ...
Daniel's user avatar
  • 149
3 votes
1 answer
247 views

Is ἐν changing to ἐμ or ἐγ only a thing in Attic?

I've seen in various places (example) the statement that prepositions like ἐν, συν, and ἐκ change forms before certain consonants, so we would have ἐμ before βμπφψ, and ἐγ before γκξχ. But looking ...
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6 votes
0 answers
96 views

When is Latin "qu" transcribed as "κο", "κοι" or "κυ" in Greek?

The most common transcription of Latin qu into the Greek alphabet seems to have been κου in general, but there are some others: κο as in κοις for quis, κοι as in κοιιδ for quid, and κυ as in κινκυε ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
313 views

Why do I find it hard not to palatalize the /g/ in digitus?

In latin words such as digitus, I found it hard to pronounce correctly the consonants /k/ or /g/ followed by /i/. I think that this happens especially if these sounds are in the same syllabe. Is it ...
SarruKen's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
192 views

βυκάνη < būcina: vowel reduction undone in borrowings from Latin?

So I've come across this word βῡκάνη, ostensibly borrowed from Latin būcina ('an ox-horn trumpet'), from bou- ('ox') + canere ('to sing'). The lack of vowel reduction is immediately striking; ...
Unbrutal_Russian's user avatar
8 votes
1 answer
288 views

On what basis is bilabial [ɸ] rather than labiodental [f] reconstructed for any Latin varieties?

I've seen references in some of my reading to a reconstructed value of a bilabial fricative [ɸ] for Latin "f" in some times and places. Examples: This answer on the Spanish Stack Exchange ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
340 views

Does G ever visibly assimilate in voice?

According to Allen's Vox Latina, /b/ regularly becomes voiceless before a voiceless consonant. This shows up sometimes in writing: for example, we see forms of ob-sideō written occasionally as opsideō....
Draconis's user avatar
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2 votes
0 answers
381 views

Latin diphthongs, vowel qualities

There is one existing question on the SE (search for 'ae pronunciation'), but there are nothing equal to my interests. My googling returned to me nothing too. So, maybe somebody here know: nowadays ...
TrmIntrs2's user avatar
  • 329
6 votes
1 answer
471 views

Is x considered one consonant or two?

We know that letter x is pronounced "cs" ("ks") i.e. as two consonants. But it is still one letter. When it stands between two vowels, is the first syllable considered open or close?
Sergey Kirienko's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
363 views

Does /l̥/ in reconstructed Latin represent a voiceless (alveolar) lateral approximate or something else?

Latin facultās presumably developed from an original *faklitāts (via *fakl̥tāts > *fakiltāts > facultās) . . . —Merriam-Webster Does the /l̥/ in *fakl̥tāts represent a voiceless (alveolar) ...
gen-ℤ ready to perish's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
286 views

Does an ig- prefix mean there's an underlying g in the root?

There seem to be certain words in Latin which start with an underlying /gn/, such as noscō /gnosko:/ [nɔsko:]—this "hidden" /g/ appears when prefixes are added, as in cognoscō /congnosko:/ [cɔŋnɔsko:] ...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
461 views

How was "gnosco" pronounced?

I've heard it said before that Classical Latin /gn/ between vowels (as in magnus) was probably realized as [ŋn] (as in "hangnail"). This is supported by Romance descendants and the spelling of certain ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 64.6k
6 votes
1 answer
662 views

Quality of final ĕ ĭ ŏ

Evidence from the Romance languages provides fairly good evidence for distinct qualities, [ɛ] vs. [eː], for ĕ and ē in stressed syllables when followed by a consonant. Likewise for ŏ and ō as [ɔ] vs. [...
Asteroides's user avatar
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10 votes
1 answer
563 views

Is the palatalization of "d" between "a", "i" or "o" and "ie" or "iu" only a Medieval Latin phenomenon?

In Italian and the other Romance languages, the palatalization especially concerns "c" and "g" before "e" or "i". But some words in Italian (or early Italian in the case of meriggio) show the same for ...
Vincenzo Oliva's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
121 views

Inars > iners: how is this change called?

What linguistic process is illustrated by changing /a/ into /e/ in inars/iners? Assimilation? Why has it taken place?
Aer's user avatar
  • 143
9 votes
1 answer
326 views

Did the Romans ever transcribe [ʃ]?

(Note: [ʃ] is the first sound in English "ship".) I've seen the sound [ʃ] represented in a few different ways in Greek writing: σ in Hebrew names in the LXX, σχ in modern Tsakonian, ψ in Sappho's ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 64.6k
5 votes
2 answers
184 views

Loss of s before voiced consonants at word boundaries

I learned from the comment to the answer to this old question that Latin has lost the consonant S before voiced consonants. In the linked post this was used to explain the observed pattern that the ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
220 views

Vowel compensation for intervocalic -ss- > -s-

I was recently reminded (by this question) that intervocalic single -s- turned into -r- by rhotacism, and later new instances of intervocalic -s- were produced from -ss-. If the vowel preceding -ss- ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
12 votes
2 answers
432 views

When did consonantal "v" start being transcribed as "β"?

Since I learned Latin using ecclesiastical pronunciation, I have a general interest in the shift from the classical pronunciation of "v" as /w/ to /v/. This question is more focused though: I am ...
brianpck's user avatar
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4 votes
0 answers
67 views

Rules of syllabification [duplicate]

In Latin Grammar, Robert J. Henle wrote (p. 2), Accent. a. In words of two syllables the accent is on the first. vía; béllum b. In words of more than two syllables, if the second last ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
10 votes
3 answers
2k views

Did an internal m nasalize the preceding vowel?

We know that the final m was not a full consonant in classical Latin, but denoted nasalization and elongation of the preceding vowel. See this or this old question for more details. Was this effect ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
7 votes
3 answers
4k views

How to pronounce the sequence "ti" when reading Latin

As Latin is a dead language, I imagine, people note pronounce it differently depending on in which county they are learning it. That said, I would like to know what IPA phoneme is commonly used to ...
Jack Maddington's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
766 views

What's the difference in sound between the letter η and the diphthong ει?

This question has been in the back of my mind for a while now. I'm curious to know, what's the difference in sound between the letter η and the diphthong ει? I would appreciate an answer in writing, ...
ktm5124's user avatar
  • 11.9k
4 votes
2 answers
458 views

Gemination after stressed vowel

Sometimes I hear people geminate consonants after stressed vowels in speech. For example, amāta might be pronounced as amātta. I have not heard enough to tell if this gemination is ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
33 votes
3 answers
3k views

Are there exceptions to the Latin stress rules?

Do the Latin stress rules (antepenultimate if penultimate is light, penultimate if heavy) have any known exceptions? If so, what are the exceptions, and what evidence is there in the grammatical ...
jogloran's user avatar
  • 733
11 votes
1 answer
530 views

Why do some 2nd decl. "-er" adjectives and nouns drop the "e" in the stem?

Is there any rule explaining why certain second-declension nouns and adjectives with a nominative -er ending drop the e when declined (e.g. ager, liber, pulcher), and why others keep it (e.g. puer, ...
fpsvogel's user avatar
  • 1,203
21 votes
4 answers
6k views

When did the consonant U (i.e., V) begin to be pronounced as the fricative [v] instead of [w]?

It's well established that the consonantal u (or v) was pronounced as [w] in Classical Latin (i.e., w as in wine). Of course, Romance languages developed voiced fricatives out of this u-consonant, ...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar
21 votes
3 answers
9k views

Non-typographical evidence of V being pronounced as [w]

According to a consensus of Latin scholars, the letter V in ancient Latin was pronounced as [w]. This seems to make sense, because there was no distinguishing between V and U, so the letter V could ...
zefciu's user avatar
  • 413