Questions tagged [late-latin]

Questions regarding the Latin immediately following Classical Latin (approximately AD 300–500)

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
6
votes
1answer
95 views

Analysis of Dative in >>Confessions<<

In Caput VI Liber II Augustine wrote:"Quamvis mihi nondum fideli......" (Although I was not a Christian...) Here he used the dative case (mihi fideli). What's the dative case for? Why is it dative? ...
2
votes
0answers
60 views

Gender and etymology of name “Herena”

I found that Herena is the name of a Christian saint from the 3rd century. Virtually nothing is known about Herena's life, but my question is about the name: Is it a feminine name or masculine, or ...
4
votes
1answer
46 views

Confessiones, sentence analysis

This is a sentence in Caput V, Liber II of Confessiones of Augustine: Cum interea non satageret idem pater qualis crescerem tibi. Here what's the case of qualis? According to the declension table it ...
3
votes
1answer
139 views

Which Latin verb was closer to the current meaning of English “solve”?

Nowadays the English verb solve means: Find an answer to, explanation for, or means of effectively dealing with (a problem or mystery). The etymology of the word indicates that it comes: from ...
7
votes
1answer
1k views

Why did “cattus” replace Latin “feles”?

The word for cat is now, in almost every European language, derived from Latin cattus, as stated in Etymonline. It also says that the word was [...] in general use on the continent by c. 700, ...
9
votes
1answer
289 views

aret = aridus est?

Is there any semantic or aspectual difference between aret and aridus est (cf. rubet/ruber est; calet/calidus est, candet/candidus est, i.a.)? Ager aret. (Col. 2.8.5) Ager aridus erat. (...
5
votes
0answers
135 views

Why can’t we wipe the slate clean in Latin?

After reading Luchonachos’ previous post, whose Latin text contains an adjectival resultative predicate (claudus effectus est ‘he became lame’), the following question came to my mind: Why is it the ...
11
votes
2answers
426 views

What would a 5th-6th century learned Latin pronunciation have sounded like?

Is there any information on the status of learned pronunciations from the late imperial period up to 1000 CE? I am wondering because the Classical Latin reconstruction seems to make clear that by the ...
11
votes
4answers
633 views

Most used word for “quince” in classical Latin

A typical Spanish dessert is the quince jelly (Spanish: carne/dulce de membrillo), which is also known as codoñate in areas of Catalan influence. Now, the Spanish word for quince is membrillo, which ...
8
votes
1answer
116 views

Does “plurimi” imply “vast majority” in Augustine's Enchiridion?

In Augustine's Enchiridion, §112, he writes: Frustra itaque nonnulli, immo quam plurimi, aeternam damnatorum poenam et cruciatus sine intermissione perpetuos humano miserantur affectu, atque ita ...
6
votes
1answer
150 views

Latin etymology of Spanish “tarde”

In Spanish, the word "tarde" has two different meanings: The part of the day between noon and dusk. Equivalent to the English noun "afternoon". Happening after the due, usual, or proper time. ...
7
votes
1answer
145 views

When did the infinitive of purpose arise?

In Classical Latin, purpose would normally be expressed with ut, or ad with a gerund, or a supine with a verb of motion, or numerous other ways. However, in later and vulgar Latin (most notably the ...
25
votes
5answers
3k views

What did “actuālis” actually mean in Latin?

The word actual is a false friend between the Spanish and the English languages. When we say in Spanish "la hora actual" we really mean "the current time" and not "the actual time". So in Spanish we ...
11
votes
3answers
329 views

Why was Z used in digraphs?

According to this other question, Late Latin used various digraphs with the letter Z in them, for sounds which might have been /ts/, /dz/, and /z/. If the letter Z was used for /z/ at the time, the ...
3
votes
1answer
455 views

Virtue is the only Nobility

Juvenal writes in Satire VI, VIII, line 20: Nobilitas sola est atque unica virtus. Translated variously as "Virtue is the one and only nobility", "Nobility is the one only virtue",...
20
votes
4answers
1k views

Why do some Latin adverbs have accent on the last syllable?

In the opening chapter of De Musica (written 387-391), St. Augustine gives an example of a Latin oxytone, i.e. a word with accentual stress on the ultimate syllable: MASTER: Now when we pronounce ...
8
votes
1answer
293 views

Did Boethius write in Classical, Late, or Medieval Latin?

Did Boethius write in Classical, Late, or Medieval Latin? His style does not appear medieval in the Peter of Spain sense of Medieval Latin; however, it does not appear to be classical in the ...
5
votes
1answer
144 views

What does “suscipies et enutries omnes” mean in Augustine?

I'm studying Augustine's Sermon 46, "De Pastoribus," largely via translations into Spanish and English. There are a number of places where my English source and my Spanish source disagree, ...
13
votes
1answer
143 views

How to tell when an inscription is post-classical?

When traveling in Europe, I occasionally come across Latin inscriptions. Their ages vary greatly, and I would like to get some tools for quickly estimating their age. How can I tell if an inscription ...
8
votes
1answer
97 views

Does “quidam Ciceronis” indicate respect for the person?

In Augustine's Confessions, book 3, chapter 4, he writes: et usitato iam discendi ordine perveneram in librum cuiusdam Ciceronis (source) Henry Chadwick translates the bolded phrase as "a certain ...
10
votes
1answer
151 views

Apicius' “sp[h]ondyli vel fonduli”

Apicius' de re coquinaria (Roman recipe book believed to have been compiled in the 4th/5th century CE) contains, in the book 3 "cepuros" on vegetables, a paragraph (XX, recipes 115 to 121) entitled "...
-1
votes
1answer
269 views

When and why did Latin mutate into Italian, French and Spanish? [closed]

At which point in history was the language spoken not anymore called Latin but any of the succeeding languages like Italian, French or Spanish? What are the characteristics which made them different ...
28
votes
2answers
2k views

When did “c” before “e” or “i” start to be pronounced as [ts] (in contrast to classical [k])?

In Classical Latin, "c" was always pronounced as "k". Since Renaissance Latin grammar reform, the correct pronunciation of "c" before "e" or "i" was codified to [ts]. So in Renaissance the true ...