Questions tagged [example-request]

For questions that ask for an example of usage of a particular word or construction, either artificial or from literature.

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Example request: accusative neuter nouns in any classical prose text

Is anyone able to provide me with about five sentences from any Latin classical text (one or more), excluding poetry or plays, where a NEUTER noun (any) is unambiguously employed in the accusative as ...
Harry's user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
100 views

"Receive blow in the face with hand"

In Seneca's Moral Letters 78: Athletae quantum plagarum ore, quantum toto corpore excipiunt! to receive blow in the face is plagam ore excipere: that is an ablative without preposition which would ...
d_e's user avatar
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5 votes
2 answers
460 views

Another use of gratia as in exempli gratia

A web search tells us that e.g. stands for exempli gratia where gratia has the literal translation of “for the sake of”. Can anyone give another example from the literature where gratia has this ...
Simd's user avatar
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10 votes
4 answers
961 views

Is any word attested in both vocative and locative?

Both the vocative and the locative are pretty rare cases, and not found in all kinds of words. Is there any word that is attested in both cases in classical Latin? I prefer the vocative to be distinct ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
111 views

Ab Nobis - to leave us

A quick search can barely confirm that ablative plural ab nobis is found in collocation. This might literally translate German von uns, as in the euphemism von uns gegangen sein * from us ygone be ...
vectory's user avatar
4 votes
0 answers
38 views

What are classical examples where prepositional ad phrase is inside ad purpose clause

This question is triggered by another question about wheatear the "ad" is prepositional or purpose. In theory, we should see examples where something like this happens: Discipuli Marcum ad ...
d_e's user avatar
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12 votes
1 answer
203 views

When have we last lost an ancient Latin text?

Alex B's answer to a recent question mentions that we have no extant texts from Ovid before the high middle ages. As books are perishable on the timescale of centuries, having extant material today ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
401 views

How to you convert a Latin word, such as voluntas, into a name, specifically a surname?

I've been wondering how to properly convert Latin words into names to signify the importance of certain concepts to a person, and met conflicting information online. My default assumption would be to ...
Thomas's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
135 views

Future participle that wasn't fulfilled

This is a follow-up question of this question on difference between future participle and simple future Apparently from the very question and the answers it seems my previous understanding of future ...
d_e's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
432 views

Are there minimal pairs between vowels and semivowels?

In Classical times, no distinction was made in writing between /u/ and /w/, or between /i/ and /j/. This distinction seems to have been phonemic, because we see names like Jūlius vs Iūlus. But are ...
Draconis's user avatar
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7 votes
0 answers
90 views

Was deliberately bad grammar ever used for emphasis in Latin?

In English, we can sometimes use deliberately incorrect grammar for effect in speech. The first example that comes to mind is a more colloquial example: I ain't never going to do... When I hear this ...
Adam's user avatar
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9 votes
1 answer
163 views

Did poets elide across consonants?

I have a definite recollection that Plautus, Ennius, or some other early poet had a tendency to elide across a word-final S, as in (made-up examples) domus et → dom'et and domus est → domu'st. If ...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
534 views

Where is φιλημι attested?

I've often heard it said that Aeolic Greek used -μι endings on contract verbs, like φιλημι in Sappho (for Attic φιλέω/φιλῶ). However, I can't seem to find this supposed "φιλημι" anywhere. It ...
Draconis's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Do any Greek words have stems ending in labiovelars?

I know that Ancient Greek lost its labiovelar consonants at some point before alphabetic writing caught on. We know of the labiovelars' previous existence mostly because of different reflexes in ...
Draconis's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
274 views

Are any phonemic distinctions not represented in Latin?

Latin orthography seems to have been relatively phonemic. In other words, if long vowels are marked somehow (macrons or apices), there seems to be a straightforward mapping between letters and ...
Draconis's user avatar
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3 votes
0 answers
170 views

Did Romulus and Remus have other names?

Throughout Classical times, Romans would often have several names: one person might be identified by praenomen, nomen gentilicum, cognomen, agnomen, signum, and patronymic, all together. Were Roman ...
Draconis's user avatar
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1 answer
1k views

Do neuter plural nouns ever take singular verbs in Latin?

In Greek, it's well-known that neuter plural subjects take singular verb forms. This seems to be an old Indo-European feature, as it shows up in e.g. Anatolian languages as well. Does this feature ...
Draconis's user avatar
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10 votes
3 answers
604 views

An example sentence for Latin pronunciation

Latin pronunciation varies between times and locations, and to some extent individuals. If I want learn a new kind of pronunciation, make sure I have properly switched to a new pronunciation, or want ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
108 views

Is there a Latin equivalent to ἐπίκοινος?

The Ancient Greek grammatical tradition, going back to Dionysius Thrax (or maybe farther), distinguishes five types of nouns: masculine, feminine, neuter, common, and epicene (ἐπίκοινος). Four of ...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
481 views

Is 'volo' ever used with a future infinitive?

One can certainly use volo with an infinitive to express a wish: Volo amari! I want to be loved! A future sense is often implied, as one would probably interpret that I'm not loved now if I wish ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
305 views

How did the Romans refer to people of unknown gender?

Reference to other people's gender has become a delicate issue in today's world. I expect that the Romans had no controversy over it, but they must have encountered situations where they have to write ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
265 views

When were /k/ and /q/ first distinguished in the Greek or Latin alphabet?

Nowadays, in languages which make a distinction between velar and uvular stops, it's common to use K for the first and Q for the second. This is best-known nowadays from transcriptions of Arabic names,...
Draconis's user avatar
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10 votes
1 answer
320 views

Substantive adjectives "Latīna, Graeca" as language names

For example, I want to say: Latīna placet mihi magis quam Graeca, quamquam in Graecā multō plūra et doctiōra dē philosophiā scrīpta sunt. I've seen people claiming that this use is incorrect and that ...
Unbrutal_Russian's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
145 views

An unambiguous example of 'īt'

The regular perfect them form for "he went" is iit. In an answer to this question about two short versus one long vowel, TKR mentions that this form can be contracted to īt. In a text without macrons ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
9 votes
4 answers
2k views

Can 'in-' mean both 'in' and 'no'?

The prefix in- can mean "in" or "into" or similar, as in inire. It can also mean "non-" or "un-", as in infelix. Both meanings of the prefix are attested, but I am not familiar with any case where ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
231 views

What evidence is there for volēre over volere?

In this answer, fdb mentions the Classical verb volō, velle transforming into *voleō, volēre in Vulgar Latin. The main evidence for this is a form volendi in Augustine and reflexes like voglio, volere ...
Draconis's user avatar
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8 votes
4 answers
1k views

Do non-deponent Latin verbs ever have a "middle voice"?

In Ancient Greek, verbs often take a "middle voice", neither active nor passive. The forms usually look identical to the passive on the surface, but can take direct objects and cannot take an agent (...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
12 votes
2 answers
2k views

Does Latin have any neuter words for humans?

In Ancient Greek, diminutives are almost always neuter, regardless of the original noun's gender. This leads to words like paidíon, "small child" (from país "child"), which are neuter even though they ...
Draconis's user avatar
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4 votes
0 answers
84 views

Do we have evidence of clipped words in Latin?

In English, it's common for words to be clipped down to their first couple syllables: "brother" becomes "bro", "university" becomes "uni", "doctor" becomes "doc", "veteran" becomes "vet", and so on. ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
4 votes
1 answer
209 views

Did the Romans make bilingual puns?

I know that the Romans appreciated wordplay. But there's a rare and specific type of pun that I'm curious about now: a pun based on words sounding similar between languages. For example: Have you ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
6 votes
2 answers
339 views

Can 'non' with gerundive mean both lack of obligation and negative obligation?

If a gerundive is used with non, can it mean both lack of obligation and negative obligation? For example, can non loquendum est mean both "it is not necessary to speak" and "it is necessary not to ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
10 votes
2 answers
276 views

Omission of a repeated verb in second part of a μέν ... δέ

This question is about the Greek equivalent of sentences like I do not fear the Greeks, but I do fear the Romans. Socrates didn't write dialogues, but Plato did. These sentences use or imply the ...
TKR's user avatar
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16 votes
3 answers
3k views

Can "ee" appear in Latin?

There are a few instances in Latin where words are spelled with two vowels next to each other, in hiatus: filii "sons", metuunt "they fear". Now, the last words of the Emperor Julian II are normally ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
9 votes
1 answer
202 views

Do we know how Greek dialects sounded?

To some extent, we know how sounds varied between ancient Greek dialects: the Aeolians lost rough breathings but preserved digamma, for example, while the Attics changed many of their long alphas into ...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
1k views

Are there any words in Latin that are "light"?

In Latin, every syllable is either "light" or "heavy". A "heavy" syllable is one that has a long vowel and/or a coda consonant, and a "light" syllable is anything else. This distinction is important ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
5 votes
1 answer
138 views

Is *rīcus attested?

The word for "rich" in most Romance languages looks something like, well, "rich". It declines like a first/second declension adjective, and seems to go back to Germanic *rīkijaz (possibly through ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
3 votes
1 answer
114 views

Can "libella maris" be "sea level"?

I came across the expression libella maris in a scientific text from 19th century. There are many ways to parse it in the context, and one option that occurred to me is that maybe it stands for "sea ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
9 votes
2 answers
4k views

"There is" in Latin

In English you use the phrasal verb there+[to be] to mean something different than just an object being placed somewhere visible or known to the speaker and/or listener (i.e., there). According to ...
Rafael's user avatar
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5 votes
2 answers
109 views

Are the pronoun-looking forms of quire attested?

The verb quire is conjugated like ire, and there are some forms that look like an interrogative or relative pronoun. Those forms are quīs and quī. Are these attested in classical ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
390 views

Is the nominative gerund attested?

I'd always heard that the gerund had no nominative, with the present active infinitive taking the place of the missing form: volāre difficile est, rather than *volāndum. However, in the comments on ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67k
6 votes
1 answer
232 views

Vocative Gerund

I am 99.9999% confident there is no purpose for a vocative gerund. Yet nothing seems to specifically disallow for such a construction. In theory something such as "odi te currendum" (in English, "I ...
tox123's user avatar
  • 1,623
5 votes
2 answers
165 views

Irreal condition expressed by a prepositional phrase

In English one can say: Without you I would not be here. This is roughly the same thing as: If you had not helped, I would not be here. The exact wording depends on context. In the second ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
247 views

Garden path sentences in classical Latin

A garden path sentence is a sentence that leads the reader astray and forces them to reanalyze. The obvious first interpretation when one starts reading is a red herring and it comes clear that the ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
13 votes
4 answers
1k views

Comparison of participles

Participles behave much like adjectives. Do they also have comparative and superlative forms? They are easy enough to form: ferentior, dicturissimus. More precisely, are any comparatives or ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
401 views

Has any Latin literature survived through the Arabs?

Some pieces of Greek literature have survived only through the Arabs. But is there any classical Latin literature that has survived the same way? This could mean translations from Latin to Arabic and ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
94 views

How has literature helped archaeology?

Is there a good example case where extant ancient literature has helped understand archaeological findings? This could mean, for example, a Roman author mentioning a tool and its use, which has helped ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
8 votes
1 answer
245 views

What was the classic term for "damnatio memoriae"?

The Wikipedia article on the subject notes that the term damnatio memoriae, referring to the relegation of a person's name to oblivion, as if they never existed, is a neo-Latin expression first ...
kkm -still wary of SE promises's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
157 views

Ancient plagiarism

I have no doubt that plagiarism existed in the Greek and Roman antiquity: some authors must have copied material more or less directly from others without attribution. (The moral requirement to cite ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
184 views

Politically (in)correct Latin

I am looking for an example of a pair of adjectives or nouns (broadly defined) in classical Latin which mean the same thing but one is considered rude and the other one polite. I could list several ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
8 votes
1 answer
1k views

Regular passive forms of "facere"

Have regular passive forms of the verb facere ever been used? If so, what is the first occurrence? In all of the Latin I have seen, the passive forms of facere are replaced by fieri. Regular passive ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar