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Where does the final -ς in genitive feminine singularis -ᾱς/-ης/τῆς come from?

The declination pattern for the case endings, as well as the article ὁ, ἡ, τό, seems to fairly closely match that of the grammatical endings you find in Latin: Case Latin Greek Latin Greek Latin ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
338 views

Seneca’s Epistula Moralis XLI: "God" or "a god"?

The Loeb translation by Richard M. Gummere of Seneca's Epistula XLI, "On the God Within Us": Non sunt ad caelum elevandae manus nec exorandus aedituus ut nos ad aurem simulacri, quasi magis ...
Ben Kovitz's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
1k views

What is the correct translation for "The story is not over"?

What is the correct translation for "The story is not over"? "Story" here refers to the metaphorical story of our lives (so rather fabula than historia). "Not over" means that's not completed and that ...
Paulien Van der Krift's user avatar
15 votes
1 answer
379 views

Use of Greek article in Latin to clarify use of foreign indeclinable nouns

This question concerning the pluralization of letter names has led me to ask a somewhat related question on the use of Greek to clarify indeclinable nouns in Latin. The background to this question is ...
varro's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
121 views

How would I emphasize a definite noun? (Greek)

Suppose I want to be particularly emphatic about a noun: "the Fates themselves must have turned against me!" In Latin, I'd use some form of ipse; in Greek, my first instinct is αὐτός. But I've also ...
Draconis's user avatar
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7 votes
2 answers
770 views

Why is there no definite article in the phrase Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος?

The phrase Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος is the first verse from John, chapter 1, and is commonly translated as "In the beginning was the Word". I would like to know why the definite article is missing inside ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
206 views

In the sentence, 'Honor your old teacher', should the noun be definite or indefinite? (Greek)

In the sentence, 'Honor your old teacher', should the noun be definite or indefinite? I'm tempted to say definite. τίμᾱ τὸν παλαίον διδάσκαλον σου. But the one doubt I have is that there is no ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
153 views

Should the Greek definite article be omitted in a ὅτι phrase?

In phrases like, we wish to be attacked by as few enemies as possible, ἐθέλομεν προσβάλλεσθαι ὑφ' ὅτι ὀλιγίστων πολεμίων, is it correct to leave out the definite article after ὅτι? I ask because, in ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
942 views

Why is the Greek definite article τη duplicated in this sentence?

I was translating a simplified version of Two Friends and a Bear, one of Aesop's fables, listed as #65 in the Perry Index. The text begins with the sentence: Δύο φίλοι τῇ ὁδῷ τῇ εἰς τὴν χώραν ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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23 votes
1 answer
1k views

When did the word "ly" enter the Latin language and where did it come from?

In an answer to this question, I gave examples of the word "ly" in Medieval Latin. This leads me to wonder when the term entered the language and where it came from? Because it resembles the article ...
SAG's user avatar
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11 votes
1 answer
314 views

Can the use of articles be traced back to Late/Vulgar Latin?

The Romance articles developed from Latin ille. Was ille already used in a way that resembles articles more than demonstratives in very late or Vulgar Latin? Or did it this use only emerge after Latin ...
Cerberus's user avatar
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44 votes
2 answers
2k views

Why is "ille" used in Winnie ille Pu and Hobbitus Ille?

I learned early on that Latin has no articles. So why is it, then, that Winnie the Pooh and The Hobbit are translated Winnie ille Pu and Hobbitus Ille? Wouldn't it be more correct to not translate ...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar