Let's ignore the quote in your question for the moment.
The question is can a person, writing in a language other than Latin, take a Latin word - or rather, its sound form, perhaps with - or without- some "semantic load", shall we say - and use it in a language other than Latin, and use in a sense that they deem necessary?
The answer is - yes. Examples galore.
Does it have any bearing on Latin? The answer is no.
Now, back to nos moutons (the quote in your question. Unfortunately, Ricoeur’s philosophical distinction is presented there as a fact of Latin lexicology (vocabulary studies). This is certainly not true and imho should be rewritten, with a reference to Ricoeur’s philosophy, not the Latin language.