In his Preface to Judith, Jerome writes:
Apud Hebraeos liber Judith inter apocrypha legitur: cujus auctoritas ad roboranda illa quae in contentionem veniunt, minus idonea judicatur.
I, with an atrociously minimal knowledge of Latin, would translate this thus:
Among the Hebrews, the book of Judith is counted among the Apocrypha: the authority of which, for confirmation on matters which come into dispute, is judged less than sufficient.
However, another translator translates it thus:
Among the Jews, the book of Judith is considered among the apocrypha; its warrant for affirming those [apocryphal texts] which have come into dispute is deemed less than sufficient
Which doesn't make sense to me in the slightest.
Have I captured the sense, or am I completely mistaken?
Thanks in advance.