When messaging a British colleague, I noticed something interesting in the orthography. Where I would write "she killed" as necāvit, she writes necarvit.
In a non-rhotic accent, this makes perfect sense: ar in this environment is a longer version of a, and it can be typed on an English keyboard more easily than ā can.
But I'm curious: is this any sort of official or common practice? Or is it an accident of the sort the Appendix Probī hates so much, replacing one spelling with another that sounds identical?
(My accent, by comparison, is rhotic: I pronounce the r there as a consonant, which makes it sound completely different.)