Before staring learning Latin, I was already acquainted with many Latin expressions accommodated to Spanish (and English). Typical examples are ex ante, ex post, vice versa, et cetera, etc.
Now that I've started to learn Latin, I can dig deeper into the meaning of these expression in its original language. But the agreement seems sometimes not to be literal. There is already an example here. Another example, so far as I can tell, is vice versa. For instance, in the Vulgata we read (Esther 9:1):
Igitur duodecimi mensis, quem Adar vocari ante jam diximus, tertiadecima die, quando cunctis Judaeis interfectio parabatur, et hostes eorum inhiabant sanguini, versa vice Judaei superiores esse coeperunt, et se de adversariis vindicare.
But as far as I can understand, the meaning there is not that which we normally understand to be vice versa in English (or Spanish). There is a turn of things, but I don't see a literal translation being valid there.
There are of course plenty of examples where the meaning is mostly if not equally identical, e.g. viva voce, vox populi.
I would like to know (i) if discrepancies is actually a common phenomenon, and if so, (ii) why does it occur. Is it because of the increasing Latin illiteracy of an important group of the population, such that at some point the users of an expression no longer understand the language behind it, giving further way to imprecise, if not directly incorrect meanings? (Not that there is necessarily something wrong with this)