The sources I've read usually say that 'ad' (i.e., in 'ad infinitum') is derived from Proto-Indo-European
*ád ("near, at"). However, they don't refer any Semitic origins.
But here's an excerpt from Philip Baldi's Semitic Influence in the History of Latin Syntax:
However, the Latin preposition ad here may correspond to the Semitic preposition l, which would constitute merely an isolated calque, rather than a true example of syntactic interference
(Semitic Influence in the History of Latin Syntax, 1.1, footnote 3)
So here's my question: Does 'ad' originate from the Hebrew 'ad' (to/towards) or a similar Semitic origin?