I'm a little confused about a verse in Matthew 2 of the Vulgate Bible.
Futurum est enim ut Herodes quærat puerum ad perdendum eum. (Matthew 2:13)
Douay-Rheims translates this as, "For it will come to pass that Herod will seek the child to destroy him."
But how would you classify the verb phrase "Futurum est"?
To me it looks like perfect passive indicative, but that wouldn't fit the translation.
Even though I know how Douay-Rheims translated it, I'm struggling to figure out the rules they used to arrive at their translation. I appreciate any help!