(this is just a prelim. answer)
Pinkster 2015 writes that
“[t]he use of the perfect passive as a present state in in fact part of an entire paradigm of forms of the perfectum stem of sum with participles denoting a resulting state” (p. 446).
Bis deinde post Numae regnum clausus fuit … . (Liv. 1.19.3)
Itaque in iis scriptum litteris Punicis fuit regem Massinissam imprudentem accepisse … . (Cic. Ver.4.103)
Gerd Haverling (Haverling 2008) notes that
"In Cicero positum fuit indicates a situation anterior to the action expressed by positum est, i.e. 'was deposited' as opposed to 'was erected'"
simulacrum e marmore in sepulchro positum fuit: hoc quidam homo nobilis deportavit... in
eo monumento quod positum est ut esset indicium oppressi senatus (Cic. dom. 111-112)
It is discussed in LHS Lateinische Syntax und Stilistik (para 179:b or p. 322), Die Verschiebung des Perf. Pass. - so they call it "verschobene Perfekt." They argue that "Die altlateinische Gesetzes- und Verwaltungssprache unterscheidet gleichfalls noch genau zwischen praesentischen und Vergangenheitsperfektum" ["Likewise, Old Latin legislative and administrative language still makes a distinction between present tense and perfect expressing anteriority" - translation mine].
LHS also refer to Neue and Wagner Formenlehre der lateinischen Sprache, volume III (pp. 135-151), who wrote "Indessen lesen wir oefters fui und fuerim neben dem Particip. Perfect. so, dass es sich von dem in gleicher Verbindung gebrauchten sum und sim nicht unterscheiden laesst" (p. 139) ["However, we often read/find fui and fuerim next to Particip. Perfect., so it is not possible to distinguish them from constructions with sum and sim" - translation mine]. You may want to take a look at NW III.
Borovskii and Boldyrev 1975 (p. 95) mention that such perfect forms were rather common in poetry (for metrical reasons).
I'm sure Haverling 2010 provides a more recent analysis of such forms but I don't have it at hand now.