How was consonant + i + vowel pronounced in Classical Latin - for example, in the words Gallia and diurnus?

I googled a bit and found videos sounding for me like [gallija], [gallia] and even [gallja], the first predominating. W. S. Allen's Vox Latina—a Guide to the Pronunciation of Classical Latin (page 40) says in a footnote that

The pronunciation [in some other situation] may in fact have been no different from that of words like diurnus, where the i would automatically induce a consonantal i-glide before another vowel,

but does not mention it in the main text. If [ij] is indeed correct, then why neither Wiktionary pronunciation guide nor other online sources I found mention [j]?

  • Not really relevant to an answer, but I was trying to pronounce Gallia without the "i-glide" as that source calls it, and I was having some issues! You almost need a glottal stop there to prevent the sounds from just meshing together in that way. That may just be my native accent, but it certainly wasted a minute of my time looking like an idiot saying Gallia out loud over and over again! – Sam K Mar 4 '18 at 18:40
  • 1
    Similar: How was “VV” pronounced? – Asteroides Mar 5 '18 at 18:28

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