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Latin has, depending on who you ask, 6 or 7 cases. The 7th case is the locative – the Cambridge Latin Course (which I study) does not have it, rather it just lists words like 'domi' as 'at home' – not 'domus' as 'little house'. So my question is when, and how did Latin lose the locative case?

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    Strongly related: latin.stackexchange.com/questions/280/….
    – HDE 226868
    Commented Feb 28, 2016 at 15:21
  • I didn't notice that - should I delete this question?
    – Bob Eret
    Commented Feb 28, 2016 at 15:22
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    If you think this is already answered well enough. It's up to you.
    – HDE 226868
    Commented Feb 28, 2016 at 15:23
  • It's related, but not the same question. Personally, I'd like a focus on the "why", not "when".
    – Quidam
    Commented Nov 22, 2019 at 13:41

1 Answer 1

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As Latin aged and developed, from Old Latin to Classical Latin, combined with a change in sounds of Latin lead to the dropping of the locative. However, examples of it do still remain, such as "domi" - "at home", and "Romae" - "At Rome".

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    This is essentially a summary of what is written here. If this answers your question, we should close this question as duplicate after all. The point of closing a question is that all answers are collected in one place and answers don't have to be copied over...
    – Earthliŋ
    Commented Feb 29, 2016 at 20:24

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