I learned from the comment to the answer to this old question that Latin has lost the consonant S before voiced consonants. In the linked post this was used to explain the observed pattern that the prefix ex- becomes ē- before voiced consonants.
Does this effect work also across word boundaries? That is, if a word ends in S and the next word begins with a voiced consonant, does something happen to the S? Would it be lost in either pronunciation or spelling, or would such situations perhaps be avoided?
My guess (and only a guess!) is that such loss of S was no longer active by the classical era, and the Romans would not have observed any difficulty having S followed by a voiced consonant. A quick glance at the Aeneid shows no sign of avoiding this situation. I would like to know if we know something about the matter. For example, if we have some evidence that the mentioned law became inactive at some known time or that laws of this kind do typically not work across word boundaries, that would reasonably answer my question.