I'm working on an exercise where I translate this Greek sentence to English.
οὐ θαυμάσῃ εἰ θεός τις φανεῖται ἀπὸ τῆς μηχανῆς;
Won't you be amazed if some god will appear from the machine?
According to the Greek Word Study Tool on Perseus, there are three possible parsings of θαυμάσῃ. It could be future middle indicative, aorist active subjunctive, or aorist middle subjunctive.
Does the adverb οὐ always imply that the verb is indicative? Does this fact alone rule out the subjunctive parsings?
Also, I feel like this would be more idiomatic:
Won't you be amazed if some god appears from the machine?
Is it okay to translate a verb in the future tense this way? ("appears" as opposed to "will appear"). Is this a difference between Greek and English, where, in English, a present tense verb in a subordinate clause can have future meaning, provided that the main verb is in the future tense?