6

The first clause of the Metamorphoses goes,

In nova fert animus mutatas dicere formas / corpora;

My mind inclines me to speak of bodies changed into new forms.

As an English speaker, this seems backward. Why isn't "corpora" used as the object of "dicere", and "formas" as the object of "in"? This is the more logical choice for an English speaker learning Latin. Would the Romans have shared my confusion? Or do I misunderstand the primary sense and connotations of these words?

  • 2
    @sumelic No, I think that "corpora" means "forms", here, since it agrees in gender and number with "nova". – ktm5124 Jan 29 '17 at 21:27
  • That seems to be correct. Found a book that just says "they're synonyms." books.google.com/… – Asteroides Jan 29 '17 at 21:43
4

You're parsing the line correctly -- a more literal translation would be "...to speak of forms changed into new bodies". Doesn't it come to the same thing? Io's form was changed into the new body of a cow, or her body was changed into the new form of a cow. Maybe the latter sounds a bit more natural, but I wouldn't say the former is backward. And of course with Ovid you can never rule out the possibility that he's being playful -- beginning a poem about change, maybe he decided to change his wording around from the more expected form into a new body...

  • Good point. It does come to the same thing. – ktm5124 Jan 30 '17 at 1:02
  • Could Ovid be playing with or referring to Aristotelian philosophy, sc. form and matter? – Ben Kovitz Jan 30 '17 at 2:11

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.