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The pronouns quivis and quilibet both mean "anyone", and utervis and uterlibet both mean "either one". The suffixes -vis and -libet seem to have a pretty similar effect. (I am not sure if there are other pronouns than qui and uter that can take both of these suffixes.) Is there any difference between the two, or are they completely interchangeable?

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They're fairly interchangeable. Gildersleeve and Lodge even lump them together. Even in English, the literal translations would also be nigh indistinguishable.

whichever you like

whichever you want

Some grammars will sometimes add little nuances. Smith, for example, says that quivis is more deliberate than quilibet, where the latter has more of a force of "anyone at all, but quivis can mean the same.

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    I don't think there's anything else to be said! – Tom Cotton Feb 1 '17 at 22:11
  • Thanks! I wanted to wait through the whole bounty period to take full advantage of it and see if anyone else had an answer to share. This is a good answer and fully worth the reward. – Joonas Ilmavirta Feb 3 '17 at 11:35

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