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In chapter XXVII of Lingua latina per se illustrata. Familia Romana I've learned that indirect commands are expressed with ut + subjunctive. For instance, in lines 109–110, we find

Colōnō imperat ut taceat atque surgat

This post contains another example.

However, in lines 86–87 of chapter XIV, there is an indirect command constructed with accusativus cum infinitum:

Dāvus eī calceōs dat, et eum sēcum venīre iubet

I wonder why ut + subjunctive isn't used in the previous sentence. I've read that some verbs allow both constructions, ut + subjunctive and accusativus cum infinitum. For instance, in chapter XXVIII, we find both constructions with the verb persuadeo (the following exemples are in lines 110–111 and 174–175):

Mihi nēmō persuādēbit hominem super mare ambulāre posse!

and

Nec prōmissīs sōlīs Mēdus mihi persuāsit ut sēcum venīrem, sed etiam dōnō pulcherrimō.

Is iubeo one of such verbs? That is, could I say something like this?

Davus eum iubet ut secum veniat.

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iubeo is generally followed by accusative of the person ordered and an infinitive for the order itself, whereas impero is usually followed the dative of the person ordered plus by ut + subjunctive for the order. Occasionally, iubeo is followed by ut + subjunctive, and impero by the infinitive, but this is much rarer. See Oxford Classical Dictionary, under impero and iubeo.

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