In chapter XXVII of Lingua latina per se illustrata. Familia Romana I've learned that indirect commands are expressed with ut + subjunctive. For instance, in lines 109–110, we find
Colōnō imperat ut taceat atque surgat
This post contains another example.
However, in lines 86–87 of chapter XIV, there is an indirect command constructed with accusativus cum infinitum:
Dāvus eī calceōs dat, et eum sēcum venīre iubet
I wonder why ut + subjunctive isn't used in the previous sentence. I've read that some verbs allow both constructions, ut + subjunctive and accusativus cum infinitum. For instance, in chapter XXVIII, we find both constructions with the verb persuadeo (the following exemples are in lines 110–111 and 174–175):
Mihi nēmō persuādēbit hominem super mare ambulāre posse!
and
Nec prōmissīs sōlīs Mēdus mihi persuāsit ut sēcum venīrem, sed etiam dōnō pulcherrimō.
Is iubeo one of such verbs? That is, could I say something like this?
Davus eum iubet ut secum veniat.