I was reading up on Grimm's law and an example that I saw of voiced aspirated stops becoming voiced stops (dh -> d specifiaclly) was that of the word "dhwer" (door) becoming the word "fores" in latin. I just don't understand how dh becoming a d explains how dhwer became fores?

Thank you

  • Welcome to the site! Where did you read this?
    – Joonas Ilmavirta
    Commented Oct 2, 2023 at 15:40
  • Thank you! I read this in a book about Old English that contained a section about Grimm's law.
    – tjm97
    Commented Oct 2, 2023 at 16:50
  • 1
    Grimm's law is a sound law in Germanic, it does not apply to Latin.
    – Cairnarvon
    Commented Oct 2, 2023 at 17:23

1 Answer 1


The Proto-Indo-European sound usually reconstructed as * regularly becomes f at the beginning of a word in Latin, like *dʰh₁-k- becoming faciō.

On its own, the Latin evidence doesn't tell us much about what the Proto-Indo-European sound would have been. But Greek has a th in this root, and Sanskrit a dh, which is why we reconstruct *.

  • Thank you for your answer, this is very much appreciated. I just couldn't work out where the f came from.
    – tjm97
    Commented Oct 2, 2023 at 16:53
  • Any comment on the mechanism of f < dh?
    – cmw
    Commented Oct 2, 2023 at 17:00

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