In Latin, many adverbs can be derived from adjectives. There are also verbs, adjectives, nouns that describe the same thing or are related in meanings, in possibly different ways, including but not limited to: an adjective and a noun describes the state after performing the action described by the verb.
For example,
acere (v.) and acer (adj.) and acerbus (adj.),
arere (v.) and aridus (adj.) and ara (n. altar)
cernere (v.) and certus (adj), in https://www.etymonline.com/word/certain
certain (adj.)
c. 1300, "determined, fixed," from Old French certain "reliable, sure, assured" (12c.), from Vulgar Latin *certanus, extended form of Latin certus "determined, resolved, fixed, settled," of things whose qualities are invariable, "established," also "placed beyond doubt, sure, true, proved; unerring, to be depended upon" (also source of Old French cert, Italian certo, Spanish cierto), originally a variant past participle of cernere "to distinguish, decide," literally "to sift, separate." This Latin verb comes from the PIE root *krei- "to sieve," thus "discriminate, distinguish," which is also the source of Greek krisis "turning point, judgment, result of a trial" (compare crisis).
Is there a relationship of derivation between a noun, verb, and adjective that describe the same thing or are related in meanings? For example,
- Is a verb always derived from a noun if it exists? Or the other way around? (e.g. by verbal noun, such as indefinitive, gerund). The etymology of some English words show that verbs are derived from nouns. e.g. parcel v. is derived from parcel n. https://www.etymonline.com/word/parcel
- is an adjective always derived from a verb if it exists? (e.g. by verbal adj, such as participle, gerunditive). Or the other way around? From the etymology of some English words, it seems that Latin adjs are often derived from Latin verbs (e.g. cernere v. and certus adj. mentioned above).
- Is a noun always derived from an adjective if it exists? (like in English, -ness). Or the other way around? (like in English, -ive, -ary)
There may or may not be rules for regular derivations. I am only wondering which is more fundamental and therefore more important in terms of derivational relationship.
Thanks.
