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I do understand "dies non juridicus", but the phrase "dies non juridicum" seems to be in common use too, witness Google search. How does this construction make sense? Why the neuter "juridicum"? Is it just a grammatical mistake?

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When I first saw it, I also assumed it was a mistake. But if so it's a mistake repeated incredibly widely.

So on the assumption that this is in fact correct Latin, note that juridicum is technically ambiguous. Most often, this is a singular form (masculine accusative or neuter nominative/accusative). But it can also be a genitive plural: "of the judges". This means dies non juridicum could also be read as "a day not of the judges".

This usage is not especially common, though; take it as an educated guess at best.

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    What would the nom. sg. of gen. pl. juridicum be? Apr 12, 2023 at 5:22
  • @SebastianKoppehel I assume iuridicus. It sounds more plausible to me to take the short variant of the second declension plural genitive ending than to assume an unattested iuridex or similar.
    – Joonas Ilmavirta
    Apr 12, 2023 at 5:50
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    @JoonasIlmavirta hm, it seems iuridicus for "judge" is even attested in the Digests. That said, I note there is not a single Google hit for "dies non (j/i)uridicorum" and lots of high-quality hits for "dies non juridicus", so I would put this down as a way to salvage the expression as technically correct Latin, but it's likely still an honest mistake. Apr 12, 2023 at 6:47
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    @SebastianKoppehel I agree, this is about salvaging something as technically valid. It often makes for an interesting answer when an honest mistake is salvageable like this.
    – Joonas Ilmavirta
    Apr 12, 2023 at 8:32
  • Another way of "salvaging" the phrase is by saying it could be a part of a bigger phrase... perhaps something like "dies non juridicum conventum habens"? "dies non juridicum congressum habens"? etc. (I realize these do sound unnatural and unidiomatic.)
    – q007
    Apr 16, 2023 at 1:27

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