I recently saw a video stating that when the Romans imported the upsilon(Y) from Greek, they cut the the bottom line from Y and remained V which was not read as V as we know but U. So V(letter) = U(sound) and V(sound) and U(letter) didn't existed, and U(letter) was invented when by hurrying the scribes didn't make the V sharp, but round as U. The Greek and Cyrillic script didn't have this problem because B(letter) = V(sound).

But I can't believe that Ave Caesar was pronounced Aooe Caesar, or Vezuvius as Ooezooiu, or Veni, vidi, vici as Weni, Wedee, Wici or Viva as Wewa. And if this is the case why do we learn Latin in school with V(sound) if it didn't exist?

  • 1
    Hi and welcome to Language Learning Stack Exchange. This is a site for questions about methods and hard-to-find resources for learning to teaching languages. Questions about features of specific languages or their development are off topic here. If you want, I can migrate your question to a site where it is on topic.
    – Tsundoku
    Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 10:17
  • Then migrate it
    – Bogdan Floareș
    Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 10:32
  • 2
    FWIW, I did actually learn to say, "Weni, Wedee, Wici" at school.
    – Tsundoku
    Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 10:42


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