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In my previous question, I ask why "non" was added by scholars. Reading more I found this from a 1543 Latin book
In 19's book (reconstructed one) on "non" the note is
non add. Joc(ant habere)
In this book, it's clear
What does the note say? What is meant by the "Joc" abbreviation? Was the 15-century book written in the right way?
Joc. is an earlier edition of the text by Giovanni Giocondo. Look on p. xii of the book to see the other editions and on the previous pages for the manuscripts Rose used in compiling his text.
The note says that Joc. added non, but did so before habere; as in, the editor realized it needed non (probably fell out as I mentioned in the other thread), but Rose disagrees with its placement.
