This is a kind of extension to the question about -landia as a proper way of forming a country's Latin name.
Correspondents, usually helpful, comment on my Latin syntax and, ever seeking improvement, I accept criticism gladly. However, in translating English novels I find place-names a perennial problem. Often there is an authentic Roman source, — Aquae Sulis, Eboracum. Some places have an ancient name not bestowed by the Romans — some of which are in Bede's History, for instance — perhaps, latinised names of Saxon settlements, and so on. For fictional place-names I have usually used a simple termination (e.g. Merytona for Meryton in Austen's Pride and Prejudice).
I have yet to find anyone objecting to any of the foregoing. A popular option when nothing else is available is to adopt the actual English as an indeclinable proper noun, but my own inclination is to form something from real Latin words, such as Agnovicum for Lambton, or Mareporta for Margate. To me these seem harmless enough, but they are the aspect of my translations that draws by far the greatest attention and, often, downright hostility. I wonder what any reader here thinks about this?