Augustine in the Confessions writes:
tu etiam mihi dabas nolle amplius quam dabas, et nutrientibus ??? me dare mihi velle quod eis dabas:??? dare enim mihi per ordinatum affectum volebant quo abundabant ex te.
which is translated as:
Thou also gavest me to desire no more than Thou gavest, and ??? to my nurses willingly to give me what Thou gavest them.??? For they, with a heaven-taught affection, willingly gave me what they abounded with from Thee.
To me the English translation between the ? is not good English. In the Latin I don't see how 'me' can be the object of 'dare' and 'mihi' the indirect object, unless it is an infinitive accusative, if that were the case then I think the translation would be:
to my nurses you permitted that I wanted what you gave them
But that can't be right since it doesn't make any sense. Still, from the English translation I cannot tell what 'me' and 'mihi' refers to. One of them refers to Augustine but would about the other? Perhaps the ablative/dative 'nutrentibus' could be translated as 'through my nurses' or 'due to my nurses' in which case it would be:
due my nurses you permitted ( or made it happen) that I wanted what you gave them.
Which might work but I'm still doubtful.