Book 1 of the Iliad has the optative form κιχείη. Wikipedia says that ordinarily we expect to see the -η- infix in singular optative forms when the verb is athematic or a contract verb. Neither seems to apply here, so why does this happen here?
I guess the ν in -ανω is a PIE athematic present tense marker, so you could say that κιχάνω is in some sense athematic. But the wiktionary entries for this and other verbs in -ανω don't show endings with η. Is this a Homeric or dialectical thing?