Caesar wrote in De Bello Gallico: "Ea nascuntur alces, animalia quae reliquis in locis visa non sint.". Why didn't he simply write "alibi" there? Is there a difference in meaning? And why doesn't "in" go before "reliquiis"? Did he maybe mean "by other (people) in (other) places"?

  • 2
    If your text has reliquiis rather than reliquis it's wrong.
    – Cairnarvon
    Commented Sep 18, 2021 at 21:58
  • @Cairnarvon What is the difference? Is reliquiis a noun and reliquis an adjective, or? Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 12:03
  • 3
    Reliquis is from the adjective reliquus 'remaining', reliquiis would have to be from the noun reliquiae 'remains' (a plurale tantum).
    – Cairnarvon
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 14:40

1 Answer 1


The difference is the same as the difference between "elsewhere" and "in other places" in English. Latin is a language, it has multiple ways to express a given concept.

Single-syllable prepositions, and especially cum, , ex, and in, will often be placed between the adjective and noun following it. You can see this as a kind of hyperbaton if you like, but it's idiomatic and very common.

Reliquis in locis is definitely a coherent prepositional phrase, and reliquis cannot mean "by others"—an ablative of personal agent requires a preposition ab/ā.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.