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Stumble upon these 2 sentences:

UNDE VENIT MEDUS? TUSCULO VENIT.

QUO IT MEDUS? ROMAM IT.

Both are telling me from where Medus came from a to where he is going.

I notice that the name of the towns change from ablative to accusative depending on the direction (similar to AD/AB)

So when he is coming from VENIT we use ablative just like with AB and when he is going IT we use accusative just like AD?

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In Latin, the standard, common way to indicate "to", "from", or "at" a place is to use a preposition. This is very common in all periods, and in later eras, you can use this with any noun (buildings, neighborhoods, cities, islands, countries, whatever).

But with certain nouns (names of cities, islands, and a scattered handful of others like domus), there's another option. With these nouns, you can use a bare accusative for "to", a bare ablative for "from", and a bare locative for "at". And in the Classical period, this is the standard way to express "to", "from", or "at" with these nouns—phrases like ad Romam aren't used.

This is, in fact, the only place the locative case is ever used in Classical Latin. It was vestigial and rapidly dying out in the Classical era, which is one reason why later Latin prefers to use prepositions instead. That's why it's generally not included in declension tables—it's just so rare, it's easier to look it up when you eventually need it for a specific noun.

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  • So if we say UBI EST MEDUS? TUSCULI EST. This would be correct since it's using locative for a place where Medus is instead of MEDUS IN TUSCULO EST. Aug 7 at 19:33
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    @JohhanSantana Yes, I believe that would be correct. Domī est "he's at home" is a common expression.
    – Draconis
    Aug 7 at 19:52
  • Could In domo est be correct as well? Aug 7 at 20:01
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    @JohhanSantana In domō is also common Classically—much more common than ad Rōmam. I suspect that's because the locative was already dying out by this point.
    – Draconis
    Aug 7 at 20:03

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