I was wondering about the logic of the usage of the verb utor in gerundive constructions. The following relevant quote is from Woodcock's (1959: 164) A New Latin Syntax: "one can say ad hanc rem utendam 'for using this thing' or hanc rem tibi utendam do 'I give you this thing to use', but NOT <author's emphasis> haec res utenda est. For the latter one must say hac re utendum est". Here are some relevant examples of the available uses of utor in gerundive constructions:
meos oculos habeo nec rogo utendos foris 'I have my own eyes and do not ask for eyes from someone else to use' (Plaut. Mil. 347).
ea quae utenda acceperis iubet reddere Hesiodus 'Hesiod bids one restore the things which one has received for use' (Cic. Off. 1, 48).
de quaerenda, de collocanda pecunia, vellem etiam de utenda, a quibusdam optimis viris disputatur 'Discussion is held by certain excellent fellows on the acquiring and investing the money, and I could have wished also on the employment of it' (Cic. Off. 2, 87).
est utendum consilio amicorum iisque tribuenda auctoritas 'The advice of friends is to be used and authority attributed to them' (Cic. Off. 1, 91).
Since the transitive use of utor is possible (although it is secondary, since, as is well-known, this verb is often intransitive and typically selects ablative case: e.g. see the last example above), I was wondering why the first examples in the list above are possible when used predicatively but are impossible (see Woodcock's emphatic negation above) when predicated with esse to form the periphrastic conjugation. Since the predicative examples above based on the transitive use of utor are possible, I'd ALSO expect that examples like haec res utenda est, although they are not attested, could in principle be possible but perhaps there is something of their different syntax I'm failing to notice here. In short, I do not understand Woodcock's emphatic NOT above.