In Vulgate, Matthaeus 4:23, it says "et prædicans Evangelium regni". Shouldn't it be "regno" (dative) rather than "regni" (genitive)? He was talking the gospel TO the kingdom, not the gospel OF the kingdom.
asked Apr 24, 2021 at 15:30
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4In most translations I know and in Catholic and many other Christian theologies, it is the Gospel/good news of (i.e., about) the Kingdom (of Heavens/of God). Are you concerned about a specific translation?– RafaelApr 24, 2021 at 16:24
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1 Answer
The Latin is a pretty literal translation of the Greek:
καὶ κηρύσσων τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τῆς βασιλείας
"τῆς βασιλείας" (tēs basileias) is genitive, not dative. He is preaching the Gospel of the kingdom, not preaching the Gospel to the kingdom.
This makes sense. The "kingdom" in question--as is clear from many other passages throughout the New Testament--is the "kingdom of Heaven" (ἡ βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν) or (as Mark and Luke prefer to say) the "kingdom of God" (ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ Θεοῦ). It is the message, not the recipient.
A review of several English translations makes it pretty clear that this hasn't been a matter of dispute.
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1⋯ or rather the kingdom of Heaven (regnum caelorum), which is presumably the same thing. Apr 24, 2021 at 20:41
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1@SebastianKoppehel I never noticed this difference in word choice among the three synoptic Gospels!– brianpckApr 25, 2021 at 13:25