3

In the following sentence from Wisdom 17:12, intus appears to be used as the object of a preposition:

dum ab intus minor est exspectatio, maiorem computat inscientiam eius causae, quae tormentum praestat.

Is that the case?

If so, how can that be explained gramatically since it's an adverb?

(I don't know of any rule that allows adverbs to be used as objects of prepositions.)

1
  • 1
    Perhaps helpful: the Greek original has ἔνδοθεν, which would normally be translated by a simple intus. In medieval Latin, this kind of thing is actually pretty common, e.g. talk of operations "ad extra" and "ad intra." – brianpck Dec 1 '20 at 13:37

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.