In Q: Is it "bene videtur" or "bonum videtur"? Adjective or adverb with verbs/copulae meaning "seem", I made the mistake of assuming that, "videtur mihi" = "it seems good to me", can stand alone. It was stated, by Vincenzo: "(The passive infinitive) "videri" means "it seems good" on its own only when used impersonally to introduce incidental propositions with "ut" os "si" and certain infinitives (e.g. they must not themselves contain an impersonal verb)."
In response to an enquiry as to prevailing circumstances, in Calabria, six-months ago, Vincenzo offered the example:
"res hic in Calabria satis bona videtur mihi." = "The situation here in Calabria seems good enough to me."
In order to achieve, "it seems good to me" (in isolation), there is impersonal verb (having only a 3rd. person singular in each tense & "it" as its subject) "placet" (= it pleases) plus dative, giving "mihi placet" = "it pleases me"/ "it is pleasing to me", rendered to "it seems good to me".
On https://glosbe.com/la/en/placet, in one example, "mihi placet", stands alone but is translated to "Pleased to meet you." In all other examples it is qualified by circumstances.
Firstly: is "mihi placet" a correct way to say "Pleased to meet you.", in the Roman World?
Secondly: can "mihi placet" be used, in isolation, to express pleasure at any prevailing circumstance/s?