To take the Latin first: no. Hoc faciebam would mean "I was making this", as you say, but Hoc feceram would mean "I had made this" - that is, that the making is in the past with respect to a past time; the past time being specified elsewhere in your discourse. So in your particular case, that is going too far.
Beyond that, the answer depends a little on what language you are translating from. If you are translating from English, Latin is incapable of distinguishing "I made this" from "I have made this". Hoc feci has to do duty for both. If you are translating from American, your language is itself incapable of making that distinction, so "I made this" -> Hoc feci is fine.
(Footnote for non-English-speakers: the difference between "I have made" and "I made" is that the former says something about the present and the latter doesn't. If I cook lunch at 12, "I have made lunch" ceases to be true as soon as we have eaten it, while "I made lunch" remains true all day.)